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PART I: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7, 0 POINTS)

I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)

1. The strike was ___ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.

A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down

2. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ___ rather thin.

A. get B. turn C. wear D. go

3. ___ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.

A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually

4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___ wonderfully.

A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion

5. The train service has been a ___ since they introduced the new schedules.

A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas

6. Is an inexperienced civil servant ___ to the task of running the company.

A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited

7. We ___ have been happier in those days.

A. can’t B. couldn’t C. might not D. must not

8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so ___ you’re used to the noise.

A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably

9. The storm ripped our tent to ___

A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks

10. He ____ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.

A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted

11. Hotel rooms must be ____ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.

A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left

12. I do not think there is so much as a ____ of truth in that rumor.

A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble

13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to ____

A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up

14. I have very ____ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.

A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled

15. The noise of the typewriter really ____ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.

A. put B. pulled C. set D. took

16. The sixth time he called me at night was the ____

A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air

17. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events.

A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision

18. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before.

A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent

19. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____”

A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s

20. It's no use ___ over ___ milk.

A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill

Your answers:

II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (2, 5 points)

BLACK WIDOW SPIDER

The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led to certain ___ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.

Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most ___ (2. VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by ___ (3. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ___ (4. FATAL) are rare.

Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is ___ (5. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such ___ (6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name – and its reputation.

Nevertheless, the ___ (7. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be ___ (8. ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take ___ (9. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are ___ (10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.

Your answers:

III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (2, 0 point)

1. Silence ___the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.

2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to ___.

3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to and ___ in Camden Town in London.

4. Barrack Obama has decided to ___ the American presidency in the election that will take place next year.

5. Because I hate ___ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.

6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would ___ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of her sofa with her to the store.

7. Kate had been ___ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the guitar lessons instead.

8. Even though two of the bands are dead, a new ‘The Beatle’ album called Love was recently ___.

9. Brendan was worried about having to ___ for the boss’ retirement dinner as he didn’t own any formal clothes.

10. He ___ his grandmother’s phone number with his girlfriend’s, which led to some embarrassment for him.

Your answers:

IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the numbered boxes. (2, 5 points)

Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme hot. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature. Instead of try to keep down the body temperature inside the body, what would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.

Your answers:

PART II: READING COMPREHENSION. (6, 0 POINTS)

I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (2,0 points)

True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1) ___ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness (2) ___ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3) ___ of quality and effect. (4) ___ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are (5) ___ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6) ___ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (7) ___ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today’s competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8) ___ alone nurturing our body’s abilities. What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9) ___ in mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10) ___ deep-seated.

Your answers:

II. Read the text and do the tasks as follow. (2, 0 points) OUT OF THE ASHES

Paragraph A

On the afternoon of 30^th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31^st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the lawn, 95 percent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.

Paragraph B

The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.

Paragraph C

After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being sifted and categorised.

Paragraph D

There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3 a.m on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.

Paragraph E

The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be taken quickly, as the building was unsound and whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested, would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.

Paragraph F

The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test, as every job was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore - woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons - but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.

Paragraph G

In June 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.

Paragraph H

The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the project. Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.

Questions 1–6. The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraphs contain the following information? Write the appropriate letters, A–H, in the boxes.

1. The procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire.

2. How Uppark looked after the fire.

3. Improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark.

4. The selection of people to carry out the repair work.

5. Why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark.

6. How people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark.

Questions 8–10. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the boxes.

7. On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?

8. By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?

9. After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?

10. Into what did the conservators put material recovered from the fire?

Your answers:

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2, 0 points)

A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.

The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.

There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.

Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.

But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.

What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.

A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.

If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.

1. A well-protected house …………

A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.

C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.

2. According to the writer, we should ………… A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.

C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.

3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …………

A. is predictable. B. is useful. C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.

4. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?

A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing

5. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that …………

A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.

B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a potential burglar.

D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.

6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …………

A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think.

C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.

7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………

A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.

C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.

8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………

A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.

C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.

9. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?

A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine

10. The best title for the text is ………… A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.

C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.

Your answers:

PART III. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS)

I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the word given in bold. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)

1. Although Joe kept on attempting to contact his cousin, he didn't manage to speak to her until the next day. → Despite repeated ........................ TOUCH................... his cousin, Joe didn't manage to speak to her until the next day.

2. When it comes to computer games, Jack is a real expert. CONCERNED

→ As far ............................................................................., Jack is a real expert.

3. David said that the accident was his fault. TOOK

→ David .................................................................. the accident.

4. If he doesn’t get that job, who knows what he’ll do. KNOWING

→ If he doesn’t get that job, ........................................................... what he’ll do.

5. The stranded climber would never have been rescued if his brother hadn’t had an ingenious plan. INGENUITY

→ But .......................................................... plan, the stranded climber would never have been rescued.

II. Use the word given and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible to the original one. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)

1. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week. (trial)

→ John …………………………………………………………..………………………………………

2. How do our sales compare with those of other firms? (relation)

→ How do …………………………………………………………………..……………………………

3. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed. (decline)

→ There has ……………………………………………………………..………………………………

4. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies. (doubt)

→ There is…………………………………………………………..……………………………………

5. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)

→ My changing …………………………………………………….……………………………………

III. The charts below give information on the ages of the populations of Yemen and Italy in 2000 and projections for 2050. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. (2, 0 points)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry

2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin

3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing

4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique

5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur

II. Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.

6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear

7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate

8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal

9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence

10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally

III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _______ of identical products.

A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification

12. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled.

A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner

13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _______ to me.

A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest

14. After years of neglect there was a huge _______ program to return the city to its former glory.

A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment

15. The assistant suggested _______ the next day when the manager would be there.

A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back

16. I never get a _______ of sleep after watching a horror film.

A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce

17. As it was Christmas, the _______ at church was much larger than usual.

A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping

18. The sheep were huddled into a _______ to protect them from overnight frosts.

A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen

19. The jury _______ the defendant “not guilty”.

A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found

20. Many _______ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.

A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary

21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _______ of his tutor.

A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance

22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.

A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response

23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _______ any solutions.

A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to

24. You _______ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.

A. must B. would C. should D. might

25. _______ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.

A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt

26. By the time you receive this letter, I _______ for China.

A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave

27. Prizes are awarded _______ the number of points scored.

A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to

28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _______ neglected.

A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically

29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _______ over 20 minutes a day.

A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses

30. It had been a trying afternoon, _______ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.

A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed (0) has been done as an example.

V. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. (0) has been done as an example.

VI. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.

The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that human tears are (51)_______ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (52)_______, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.

The idea that having a good cry do you (53)_______ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (54)_______ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (55)_______.

Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (56)_______ activity. Because some people still regard it as a (57)_______ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.

Tears of emotion also help the body (58)_______ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (59)_______ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (60)_______ “weepies”. It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.

51. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display

52. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter

53. A. better B. fine C. good D. well

54. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep

55. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce

56. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving

57. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign

58. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel

59. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard

60. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called

VII. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?

The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.

61. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War

C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States

62. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?

A. Most history book include the story of the train.

B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.

C. The driver of the train invented the story.

D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.

63. The word “they” in line 4 refers to________.

A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans

64. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?

A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.

B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.

C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.

D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.

65. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to________.

A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous

66. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to________.

A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required

67. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?

A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.

B. It had to be imported into the United States.

C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.

D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.

68. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?

A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass

69. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?

A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems

C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather

70. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by________.

A. eating only small quantities of grass.

B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.

C. naturally fertilizing the soil.

D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.

VIII. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it

71. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.

→ An increased_________________________________________________.

72. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.

→ Rather _______________________________________________________.

73. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.

→ The moment_________________________________________________.

74. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.

→ At no time ___________________________________________________.

75. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?

→ Other ________________________________________________________?

IX. Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).

76. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)

→ To this day_________________ in the field of technology.

77. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)

→ Peter_________________ the foul-tasting medicine.

78. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned.

→ The construction of the building_________________ unfortunate. (longer)

79. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)

→ What he told me_________________ the story.

80. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)

→ They chose_________________ too much snow.

______________THE END_______________

ĐÁP ÁN

_________THE END_________

PART 1. LISTENING (1 point)

I. Listen and circle the best answer.

01. This is___________.

A. a survey B. an interview

C. a face-to-face conversation D. a chat

02. The people talking___________.

A. are co-workers B. are friends

C. are colleagues D. do not know each other

03. The passenger’s bags haven’t arrived because___________.

A. they have been missed B. they have been postponed

C. they have been taken by mistake D. they have been stolen

II. Listen again and complete the information on the form.

Missing Baggage Details

Flight number: (04)___________. From: (05)___________. Passenger Name: (06)___________.

First name: (07)___________. Number of bags (08)___________. Phone: (09)___________.

Length of stay: (10)___________ at: Princess Hotel

PART 2. PHONETICS (1 point)

I. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined letter(s) pronounced differently from the rest.

11. A. thank B. band C. complain D. insert

12. A. lays B. says C. stays D. plays

13. A. scholarship B. chaos C. cherish D. chorus

14. A. message B. privilege C. college D. collage

15. A. talked B. naked C. asked D. liked

II. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that has the primary stress different from the rest.

16. A. individual B. reputation C. experience D. scientific

17. A. carpenter B. revise C. ignore D. traditional

18. A. necessary B. achieve C. poetic D. communicate

19. A. influence B. modern C. consider D. different

20. A. contain B. poisonous C. chemical D. scientist

PART 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 points)

I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences below. (0.5 point)

21. There are not thing special about his clothes__________ from his flowery tie.

A. but B. except C. other D. apart

22. I’d__________ you explained to her why we can’t go.

A. better B. rather C. want D. need

23. I__________ we meet outside the cinema tomorrow at 8.30.

A. think B. suggest C. consider D. introduce

24. I walked away as calmly as I could__________ .they thought I was the thief.

A. or else B. to avoid C. owing to D. in case

25. __________ the step when you go in.

A. Consider B. Mind C. Attend D. Look

26. __________ of all of us who are tonight, I would like to thank Mr Jones for his talk.

A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead

27. She refused to eat meat under any__________.

A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason

28. There was nothing they could do________ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.

A. than B. unless C. instead of D. but

29. To our__________ his illness proved not to be as serious as we had feared.

A. anxiety B. eyes C. belief D. judgement

30. Mary Smith decided to give up her job for the__________ of her children.

A. sake B. care C. mean D. concern

II. Put the words in brackets into the correct forms. (0.5 point)

Computers have had the ability to play chess for many years now, and their (31. PERFORM)__________ in games against the best players in the world has shown steady improvement. However, it will be years before the designers of computer games machines can beat their (32. BIG)__________ challenge yet – the ancient board game called “Go”. The playing area is (33. CONSIDERABLE)__________ larger than in chess and there are far more pieces, so that the combination of movies is almost endless. The game involves planning so many moves ahead that even the impressive calculations of the fastest modern computers are (34. SUFFICIENT)__________ to deal with the problems of the game. In a recent competition for computer “Go” machines, the best machine beat all its rivals, but lost (35. HEAVY)__________ to three young schoolchildren, so there is obviously still a lot of work to do.

III. Supply the correct verb tenses of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

a. She says that she (36. live)__________ in the countryside when she (37. be)__________ a child.

b. Oil (38. leak)__________ from a petrol tanker onto the motorway, so the police (39. close)__________ off the section between Junctions 5 and 6.

c. Foreign currency (40. convert)__________ into sterling at a number of points in the city, but the best rate and lowest commission charges (41. provide)__________ at banks.

d. Most of the news on the front page of both daily newspapers (42. concern)__________ the progress of the peace conference.

e. Why are you carrying that saw? I (43. shorten)__________ the legs of the dining room table.

f. Our class (44. go)__________ to the zoo next week.

g. Their grandmother (45. tell)__________ them a lot of stories last year.

IV. Choose the best option (A, B, C, D) to complete each of the sentences below. (0.5 point)

46. “Do well and do not ____________.”

A. look around B. look round C. look up D. look down

47. At this time of the year, we are always­­­­­__________ with applications for training course.

A. snowed under B. come under C. kept under D. gone under

48. I was asked to__________ with a scheme to reduce the pollution caused by our factory.

A. make up B. set up C. come up D. check up

49. We were all too happy when he managed to__________ the deal__________

A. run/ through B. go/ through C. get/ through D. put/ through

50. I__________ to the man when I saw him collapse, but it was too late.

A. stole up B. come up C. faced up D. rushed up

PART 4. READING (3.0 points)

I. Read the text below and give the word which best fits each space. (1 point)

One of the greatest problems with holidays, (51)__________ from the usual travel complications and accommodation difficulties, (52)__________ the expectations people have of them. When we go on holiday we expect to leave all the stresses and strains of our daily lives (53)__________ us. We imagine we will be able to escape to (54)__________ a degree that we even tend to believe, consciously or not, that we can change our own personalities and become completely different people. The average business-person, tense, preoccupied, short-tempered (55)__________ to relax, envisages herself/himself (56)__________ from the moment of locking the office door, a radically different (57)__________ of person: carefree, good-humoured, ready to relax and enjoy whatever adventures present (58)__________. In practice, we take ourselves with us (59)__________ we go, and the personality that is shaped over years of stress and tension is almost impossible to shake off at a moment’s notice. It is no wonder so many holidays are a disappointment, no matter how smoothly they go or how lovely the weather is. In fact, the frequent problems that crop (60)__________ during the average holiday are probably a welcome distraction from the nagging feeling that we are not enjoying ourselves as much as we should.

II. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage below. (1.0 point)

PAINTING

Nancy Andrews’ latest exhibition at the Seagull Gallery proves that she is one of our most (61)_________ painters. She has emerged from her (62)_________ phase, in which the influence of Picasso was apparent, and returned to a more (63)_________ style of painting, but without losing her (64)_________ sense of colour and form. She has chosen (65)_________ themes for this show, and her portrait of Bacchus, for example, has a wonderful (66)_________ about it. But the most (67)_________ work is the large canvas called simply “Mars”.

It is a (68)_________ study, in various shades of red and gold, and its balanced (69)_________ gives it a pleasing, even restful feel, despite the (70)_________ of its subject matter.

61. A. gifting B. gift C. gifts D. gifted

62. A. cubist B. cubism C. cubical D. cubic

63. A. tradition B. traditional C. traditionalized D. traditionalizing

64. A. delight B. delighted C. delightful D. delighting

65. A. mythology B. mythologic C. mythological D. mythologious

66. A. simplify B. simplicity C. simplification D. simple

67. A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressed

68. A. coloured B. colourless C. colour D. colourful

69. A. compose B. composing C. composition D. composion

70. A. violence B. violent C. violency D. violently

III. Read the passage below and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. (1.0 point)

The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt. Rain is relatively scarce, and the summers are scorching hot. Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the Nile is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world. Its rich black soil is the result of accumulation of silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago. From June to October, the river overflowed its banks. Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding. The floodwaters left behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops. As long as the soil was well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season.

Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley more than 5000 years ago. The earliest Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks, drawing water from the Nile for irrigation purposes. As the villagers along the Nile became wealthy, they embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods.

In about 3100 BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes. He and his descendants made up Egypt’s first ruling family, or dynasty. His rule led to the great development of the arts like writing, painting, architecture, and crafts. Egyptian power and influence were and influence were to last for the next 2000 years.

The Egyptian kings had absolute powers. The king possesses all the land, and the peasants had to surrender part of their crops to the king. An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact amount of due from the individual farmers was united. Crops and livestock were often seen at the storehouses surrounding the royal palaces. In return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects.

Egypt’s trade with the outside world stretches far and wide. In return for gold, copper, gemstones, and building stores, it purchases the goods that it did not have. Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came from Lebanon. From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported from Mesopotamia. Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes. Egypt held Nubia in the south for almost 800 years. It served as Egypt’s most vital source of gold and slaves.

71. The civilization of the ancient Egyptians was brought about by__________.

A. the rich alluvial soil of the Nile B. Egypt’s first ruling family

C. the highly-developed writing, painting, … D. Egypt’s trade with the outside world

72. Egyptian slaves came from__________.

A. Mesopotamia B. Syria and Anatolia C. Lebanon D. Palestine

73. The king was wealthy because__________.

A. huge irrigation projects were set up B. farmer paid him their tribute

C. he was in absolute power D. he possessed all the land

74. The writer said that the annual flooding of the Nile__________.

A. helped to develop the arts B. caused an influx of foreign traders

C. needed to be controlled D. led to the discovery of new mines

75. According to the passage, the king was wise__________.

A. to important the things that Egypt did not have B. to pay for huge irrigation projects

C. to control the land D. to own slaves and gold

76. In return for, in the first line, last paragraph, refers to__________.

A. the respect Egypt received B. how fast the profit came

C. the protection the Egyptian army provided D. what Egypt exported

77. A suitable title for this passage is__________.

A. The Civilization Of The Ancient Egyptians B. The Farming Methods Of The Egyptians

C. The Might Of The Egyptian Army D. The Landscape Of The Egypt

78. We know the Egyptian Empire was powerful from the__________.

A. way its army fought with other invaders C. trade and business done with nations

B. long period it extended its power and influence D. number of crops grown in one season

79. Farm crops would be__________ if there was no water for irrigation.

A. harvested B. unprotected C. destroyed D. unavailable

80. From June to October, the flood plains would be__________.

A. inundated with floodwaters from the Nile B. open to the building of new dams

C. left to the sowing of new crops D. raised to a higher level

PART 5. WRITING (2.5 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (0.5 point)

81. In my opinion you are not telling the truth.

→ I suggest that .................................................................................................................

82. They reported that she was a policewoman.

→ She .....................................................................................................................................

83. “I’m sorry I didn’t ring you to say I’d be late”, he said.

→ He...................................................................................................................................

84. Everyone started complaining the moment the announcement was made.

→ No sooner .........................................................................................................................

85. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.

→ Had it not ..........................................................................................................................

II. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (0.5 point)

86. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. (leaf)

→ .................................................................................................................................................

87. You couldn’t do anything more stupid than to give up your job now. (height)

→ .................................................................................................................................................

88. The trouble all came about because our computers crashed. (stemmed)

→ .................................................................................................................................................

89. Do you have to wear a uniform at school? (compulsory)

→ .................................................................................................................................................

90. The way many sportsmen behave in public influences their young fans. (impression)

→ .................................................................................................................................................

III. Write a paragraph (about 250 words) about the following topic: (1.5 point)

“How important is music in a modern life?”

_____________THE END_____________

ĐÁP ÁN

PART 1. LISTENING (1 points) Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt

01. C 02. D 03. B 04. UA675 05. Tokyo

06. Johnstone 07. Bill 08. 2 09. 555-432 10. 3

PART 2. PHONETICS (1 points) Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt

I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt: 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B

II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt: 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. A

PART 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 points)

I. Each correct answer gets 0.05 pt.

21. D 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A

II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

31. performance 32. biggest 33. considerably 34. insufficient 35. heavily

III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

36. lived 37. was 38. is leaking 39. are closing

40. can be converted 41. are provided 42. concerns 43. am going to shorten 44. will go/ are going 45. told

III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

46.B 47.A 48.C 49.D 50. D

PART 4. READING (3.0 points)

I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

51. apart 52. is 53. behind 54. such 55. unable

56. as 57. kind 58. themselves 59. wherever 60. Up

II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

61. D 62.A 63.B 64.C 65.C 66.B 67.A 68.D 69.C 70. A

III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

71. A 72. C 73. D 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. C 80.A

PART 5. WRITING (2.5 points)

I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

81. I suggest that you be telling the truth.

82. She was reported to be a policewoman.

83. He apologized (to me) for not ringing me to say he’d be late.

84. No sooner had the announcement been made than everyone started complaining.

85. Had it not been the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.

II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.

86. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.

87. It would be the height of your stupidity to give up your job now.

88. The trouble all stemmed from our computers crashing.

89. Is it compulsory for you to wear a uniform at school?

90. The way many sportsmen behave in public makes an impression on their young fans.

III. Write a paragraph (about 250 words) about the following topic: (1.5 point)

“How important is music in a modern life?”

_________THE END__________

SECTION A: LISTENING

Part 1: You will hear five people talking about music. For questions 1-5, choose from the list A-H what each speaker says. Use the letters only once. There are three extra letters which you do not need to use.

Part 2: You will hear someone giving a talk about global warming. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE TRUTH ABOUT GLOBAL WARMING

1. Our world is getting warmer with each (1)…… that passes.

2. Scientists measure (2)…… temperature changes.

3. Some studies show that the Earth‟s average temperature has risen by a couple of degrees in the last (3)……. years.

4. Some people hear news reports about solar flares, which are (4)……. on the face of the Sun.

5. Scientists have observed that from (5) , a time when solar activity was low, the Earth was absorbing

more energy per square metre then it was reflecting bach into space.

6. It is true that plants “breathe” carbon dioxide in the same way that we “breathe” (6) ……..

7. While some carbon dioxide is natural and good, too much is (7) poisonous.

8. A study in 2007 noted that Greenland, an island near the Arctic Circle, may (8) a longer growing

season due to global warming. At the same time, though, the rest of the planet will suffer from (9) …………

9. Climate scientists have successful predicted weather (10) ……… since 1900, including the increase in temperatures.

Your answers:

SECTION B: READING

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Most human diets contain between 10 and 15 percent of their total calories as protein. The rest of the dietary energy conies from carbohydrates, fats, and in some people, alcohol.The proportion of calories from fats varies from 10 percent in poor communities to 40 percent or more in rich communities.

In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body‟s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.

Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged.Two fatty acids,linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called eseential fatty acids.They also are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.

1. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?

A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition

C. A cookbook D. A popular women‟s magazine

2. We can infer from the passage that all of the following statements about fats are true EXCEPT

A. fats provide energy for the body B. economics influences the distribution of calorie intake

C. poor people eat more fatty foods D. alcohol is not a common source of dietary energy

3. The word “functions” in line 5 is closest in meaning to………

A. forms B. needs C. jobs D. sources

4. The phrase “stored in” in line 7 is closest in meaning to………

A. manufactured in B. attached to C. measured by D. accumulated in

5. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions EXCEPT to.................

A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body

C. provide energy D. control weight gain

6. The word “essential to” in line 12 is closest in meaning to………

A. required for B. desired for C. detrimental to D. beneficial to

7. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat free diet?

A. They stop growing B. They have more babies

C. They lose body hair D. They require less care

8. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as………

A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid

C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most foods

9. The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 15 refer to……………

A. a condition caused by fried foods

B. strategically located fat deposits

C. curves on the human female body

D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems

10. That humans should all have some fat our diet is, according to the author,……………

A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact

C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments in rats

Your answers:

Part 2: Read the passage and answer the questions. Use your predicting skills. Note the type of questions. Read the following extract and answer questions 1–10.

TERROR IN THE MOUNTAINS

A What is incredibly beautiful yet absolutely terrifying and deadly at the same time? For anyone above the

snowline in the mountains, there is little doubt about the answer. Avalanche – the word strikes fear into the heart of any avid skier or climber. For those unfortunate enough to be caught up in one, there is virtually no warning or time to get out of danger and even less chance of being found. The „destroyer‟ of the mountains, avalanches can uproot trees, crush whole buildings, and bury people metres deep under solidified snow. Around the world, as more and more people head to the mountains in winter, there are hundreds of avalanche fatalities every year.

B A snow avalanche is a sudden and extremely fast-moving „river‟ of snow which races down a

mountainside (there can also be avalanches of rocks, boulders, mud, or sand). There are four main kinds. Loose snow avalanches, or sluffs, form on very steep slopes. These usually have a „teardrop‟ shape, starting from a point and widening as they collect more snow on the way down. Slab avalanches, which are responsible for about 90% of avalanche-related deaths, occur when a stiff layer of snow fractures or breaks off and slides downhill at incredible speed. This layer may be hundreds of metres wide and several metres thick. As it tends to compact and set like concrete once it stops, it is extremely dangerous for anyone buried in the flow. The third type is an isothermal avalanche, which results from heavy rain leading to the snowpack becoming saturated with water. In the fourth type, air mixes in with loose snow as the avalanche slides, creating a powder cloud. These powder snow avalanches can be the largest of all, moving at over 300kmh, with 10,000,000 or more tonnes of snow. They can flow along a valley floor and even a short distance uphill on the other side.

C Three factors are necessary for an avalanche to form. The first relates to the condition of the snowpack.

Temperature, humidity, and sudden changes in weather conditions all affect the shape and condition of snow crystals in the snowpack which, in turn, influences the stability of the snowpack. In some cases, weather causes an improvement in avalanche conditions. For example, low temperature variation in the snowpack and consistent below-freezing temperatures enable the crystals to compress tightly. On the other hand, if the snow surface melts and refreezes, this can create an icy or unstable layer.

D The second vital factor is the degree of slope of the mountain. If this is below 25 degrees, there is little

danger of an avalanche. Slopes that are steeper than 60 degrees are also unlikely to set off a major avalanche as they „sluff‟ the snow constantly, in a cascade of loose powdery snow which causes minimal danger or damage. This means that slabs of ice or weaknesses in the snowpack have little chance to develop. Thus, the danger zone covers the 25- to 60-degree range of slopes, with most avalanches being slab avalanches that begin on slopes of 35 to 45 degrees.

E Finally, there is the movement or event that triggers the avalanche. In the case of slab avalanches, this

can be a natural trigger, such as a sudden weather change, a falling tree or a collapsing ice or snow overhang. However, in most fatal avalanches, it is people who create the trigger by moving through an avalanche-prone area. Snowmobiles are especially dangerous. On the other hand, contrary to common belief, shouting is not a big enough vibration to set off a landslide.

For questions 1–5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–E from the list of headings below (i- viii). There are more headings than paragraphs. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

List of headings

i. Examples of Major Avalanches

ii. Stability of the Snowpack

iii. What Sets Off an Avalanche?

iv. An Expert‟s Comments

v. Steepness of Mountains

vi. Avalanche Peril

vii. An Avalanche Risk Table

viii. Types of Avalanche

1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B 3.Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D 5. Paragraph E

Your answers

For questions 6–10, Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. Write your answers in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Your answers

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.

The heart has long been considered to be (1)……… feelings of love dwell. In love songs throughout the ages, love almost always goes together (2)…….. the heart. The heart has continuously been viewed (3)……….. the place where love begins and develops. Even the Bible gives (4)……… to love and the heart. The role of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly (5) to

someone. The strong feelings (6)……… the other person, especially in the early stages of a relationship, have the results that the heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding (7)……... According to psychologists, a love relationship is a situation that (8) a lot of stress and the body reacts to this by

getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" (9………, meeting danger by fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart accelerates and (10) becomes quick.

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in your answers

1. People can become very when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.

A. nervous B. stressful C. bad-tempered D. pressed

2. Mr. Thomson is one of the most distinguished scientists in his ………… .

A. matter B. field C. part D. place

3. There has been a great in her English.

A. escalation B. rise C. increase D. improvement

4. The of the general election will be known today.

A. result B. decision C. effect D. choice

5. The couple decided to every month for their retirement.

A. put some money away B. put some money aside

C. take up some money D. take some money away

6. The taxi was so late reaching the station that my father missed his train.

A. rarely B. immediately C. entirely D. almost

7. an emergency arise, call 911.

A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will

8. The doctor gave the patient examination to discover the cause of his collapse.

A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole

9. I'm saving all my pocket money to buy a new PlayStation.

A. out B. down C. up D. away 10. Henry: " "

John: "Nothing."

A. What do you do? B. What's new? C. How are you? D. Are you a newcomer?

Your answers:

Part 2: There are TEN mistakes in this passage. Write them down and give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided.

Your answers:

Part 3: Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word.

GETTING ENOUGH EXERCISE

While most people (1)…… to have a toned healthy body, not everyone enjoys (2)……… out at the gym. In fact, many of us (3)………. sooner avoid any kind of vigorous exercise altogether, and may not even feel it is necessary. Over the years, various health experts have assured us that keeping (4)……….

simply requires a total of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days of the week. Many people believe that a walk to the shops or some light housework constitutes moderate activity, but it turns (5) this may not

be the case.

According to the British Association of Sport and Exercise, it is high (6) more specific advice

was given about what actually constitutes moderate activity. Housework, it seems, does not fall into this category. Anyone who devotes a great deal of time every day to dusting and vacuuming no doubt wishes that it (7)………, but research has shown that women who spend over eight hours a day (8)……...

housework actually tend to be slightly more overweight than (9)……. who do none whatsoever. The association, therefore, would prefer it if the public were instructed as to exactly what (10) of physical

activity to aim for.

Your answers:

Part 4: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use and don’t change the word given. Write 2-5 words in total.

1. Please do not eat crisps in the classroom! RATHER

I'd ,,,,. crisps in the classroom.

2. I wish I hadn't bought that expensive watch! BUYING

I expensive watch.

3. The boss wouldn't object to you going early today. OBJECTION

The boss would not you going early today.

4. I regret not taking your advice. FOLLOWED

If only your advice.

5. You must do exactly what the teacher tells you. CARRY

You must instructions exactly.

SECTION D: WRITING

Part 1: You borrowed an important textbook from a classmate last term. You now realize your classmate had returned home overseas and you still have the book. Within 80 - 90 words, write a letter to him / her. Use your name and address as David Parker – 123, Green Street, Wonderful City.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part 2: Write a paragraph of about 200 words about the following statement:

Teamwork offers a lot of benefits in the modern society.

To what extent do you agree or disagree?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

ANSWER KEYS

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1: (1pts × 5 Qs):

1. B 2. G 3. F 4. D 5. A

Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)

SECTION B: READING(30 points)

Part 1 (1pts × 10 Qs)

Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)

Part 3 (1pts × 10 Qs)

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR(30 points)

Part 1: (0,5pts × 10 Qs)

Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)

Part 3: (1pts × 10 Qs)

Part 4: (1pts × 5 Qs)

1. rather you didn't eat

2. regret buying that

3. have any objection to

4. I had followed

5. carry out the teacher's

SECTION D: WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: (12pts)

Length (2ps): 80-90 words

Ideas (3ps):

Organization and Style (3ps): informal

Vocabulary and grammar (4ps) Part 2: (13pts)

1. Length: (2ps) : 200 words.

2. Organization & style: (3ps) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

3. Ideas (4ps): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.

4. Grammar and Vocabulary (4ps) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

PART A . PHONETICS : (5.0 point)

Question I: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (2.0 point)

Question II: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3.0 point)

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (45.0points)

Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (15.0 points).

1. the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.

A. Until B. In C. By D. On

2. They are going to make excursion next month.

A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week

3. He refused to give up work , he had won a million pounds.

A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though

4. The new system didn’t expectations.

A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to

5. The newspaper report contained important information.

A. many B. another C. an D. a lot of

6. You better be careful not to miss the train.

A. would B. should C. had D. did

7. Helen asked me the film called “Stars Wars”.

A. have I seen B. have you seen C. If I had seen D. if had I

seen

8. She had no of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grand mother.

A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion

9. I’m really looking forward to university.

A. to go B. go C. going D. to going

10. Let’s go dancing, ……………?” - “Yes, let’s”

A. will we B. do we C. don’t we D. shall we

11. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just , please.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little.

12. They are very happy to have received a(n) of 500 dollars from a foreign company.

A. charity B. donation C. hospital D. organisation

13. were so late that we had time to catch the train.

A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. mostly

14. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.

A. endanger B. dangerous C. danger D. endangered

15.- “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” - “ ”

A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I don’t mind

Question II: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10.0 point)

1. Earth Hour is a ...................event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on climate change.

(WORLD)

2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ...................sources of energy.

(ALTERNATE)

3. This organization is very concerned about the of the rain forests.

(DESTROY)

4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ................ .

(NECESSARY)

5. Two… from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students.

(REPRESENT)

6. What does it mean to say “ the world is ?

(OVERPOPULATE)

7. Seven countries have arrangements to deliver EMS items.

(ADD)

8. Petroleum is the most used energy source, supplying about 40% of the planet’s energy.

(COMMON)

9. My farther is very good at people singing with his guitar and I admire him very much.

(ACCOMPANY)

10. Mother’day occurs on the second Sundy in May.

(ANNUAL)

Your answers

Question III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example ( 10.0 points)

Question IV: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pt )

1. A - Stop! You (not see) the notice?

B - I see it but I can’t read it. What it (say) ?

2. That man was a little mad. He always (try) to improve that the earth was flat.

3. Something tells me that you (not listen) …………….to a single word I have said in the past ten minutes.

4. I’m so confused that I don’t know what (do) ………………….. .

5. Smith had a lucky escape. He (kill) ……………………………. .

PART D. READING (30.0 points)

Question I: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE appropriate word: ( 10.0 points)

Books give us all the information (1)…………..a man. They show his interest. They are the (2)………to his mind. All the richers of the world lose their importance in the face of books. A man with money and (3)……..

Books is a poor man. Books have become so cheap that a library can easily be made. Money spent on good books is never (4)……………. It is a pleasure to read good books. Thus man gains both efficiency and wisdom. You can(5)…… your library with the expenditure of only a few hundred rupees.

Your answers

Question II: Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (10.0 points )

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.

The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals

C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.

2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

A. It helps them hide from predators B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors

C. It helps them see their young at night D. It keeps them cool at night

3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying

4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day

C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking

6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce

7. What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water

C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.

8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities

quickly

C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances

looking for food.

9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated

C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.

QuestionIII: Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (10.0 point)

The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ...................... and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been carried out by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (2) of the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we

are already too dependent on computers. They think that computers themselves are becoming too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.

One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (3)..........................

If a computer is damaged, the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (4)......................... in it, the computer‟s calculation can be seriously (5)........................... .

A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could cause terrible mistakes.

PART E. WRITING (20.0 points)

Question I: Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (5.0 points)

0. Can you close window, please?  Would you mind closing the window?

1. “I am sorry that I broke the glass” said Jim.

=> Jim apologised …………………………………………………………………………….. .

2. I really think you ought to take some exercises.

=> It is high time ………………………………………………………………………………

3. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.

=> The sooner ………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.

=> So …………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.

=> I’d rather ……………………………………………………………………………………..

Question II: Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (5.0 pts)

1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)

=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)

=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)

=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………

……

5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………

……

Question III: Write an essay (about 150 words) on the following topic: (10.0 points)

In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as computers or television or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? Use reasons and specific details to explain your choice.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

------ THE END ------

ĐÁP ÁN:

PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)

Question I.( 15 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question II. (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question III; (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm - nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)

Question IV: ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: ( 10điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)

Question II. ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question III. ( 10 điểm -Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I (5 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question III. Essay: (10 điểm) Marking criteria:

+ Task completion (4 điểm)

Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.

+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).

- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:

Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.

B - HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:

Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25

Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions.

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: The man refused to the hospital.

A. taking B. being taken C. taken D. to be taken

Question 7: Thanks to medical improvement, the rate in New Town has recently decreased.

A. death B. deaden C. dead D. deadly

Question 8: It is considered to interrupt others while they are doing the talking.

A. rude B. helpful C. polite D. arrogant

Question 9: His laziness resulted his failure in the final exam.

A. from B. in C. by D. of

Question 10: Sally speaks French. She even can't use her French to ask for directions.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little

Question 11: Jack: Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?

Jean: .

A. No, thanks B. Sorry, the seat is taken

C. Yes, yes. You can sit here D. Yes, I am so glad

Question 12: Some snakes lay eggs, but give birth to live offspring.

A. others B. the other C. other D. the others

Question 13: In most developed countries, up to 50% of population enters higher education at some time in their lives.

A. the/ x B. the/ the C. x/ x D. x/ the

Question 14: Never say that again, ?

A. don’t you B. won't you C. will you D. do you

Question 15: It's time the authorities people safety helmets whenever they ride their motorbike.

A. had/ to wear B. have/ worn C. have/ wear D. had/ wear

Question 16: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my in work.

A. eyes B. neck C. head D. nose

Question 17: Samuel Clemens, under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that reflected purely American traits and habits.

A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote

Question 18: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .

A. out of work B. out of stock C. out of practice D. out of reach

Question 19: If you had taken my advice, you in such difficulties now.

A. wouldn't be B. won’t be

C. hadn't been D. wouldn't have been

Question 20: You gave me precious help I am extremely grateful.

A. to which B. for that C. for which D. to that

Question 21: Be careful with your gun! You may somebody.

A. ache B. wound C. hurt D. injure

Question 22: This is a picture of a bus.

A. London red bright B. red bright London C. bright red London D. London bright red

Question 23: Does Tom own that car? --- No, I think his brother it now.

A. was owning B. is owning C. has owned D. owns

Question 24: John, goodbye to her.

that his girlfriend went out with another guy, decided to say

A. to believe B. believe C. believing D. believed

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences.

Question 25: There are many opportunities for work in the city.

A. possibilities B. disadvantages C. difficulties D. advantages

Question 26: Be careful! The tree is going to fall.

A. Look after B. Look up C. Look out D. Look on

Question 27: Although she is not a fashion model, her clothes are always up to the minute.

A. out of date B. modern C. time after time D. from time to time

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences.

Question 28: The farmers removed some undeveloped trees to improve the growth of the rest.

A. planted B. transferred C. eliminated D. fertilized

Question 29: I met famous people practically every day.

A. substantially B. scarcely C. relatively D. virtually

VI. Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence.

Question 30: Thirty billions dollars will be invested to build a high-speed train in Vietnam

A. high-speed train B. will be invested

C. Thirty billions dollars D. to build

Question 31: Thank you for your letter, which you invited me to your wedding.

A. which B. invited C. to your wedding D. for

Question 32: He had such little money that he couldn't buy a train ticket.

A. little B. couldn't buy C. such D. train ticket

Question 33: Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.

A. would reveal B. arresting C. Neither D. his group

Question 34: The computer software industry is one of the most competitive markets in today's techonological advanced society.

A. one of the most B. technological advanced

C. The computer software D. today's

VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle".

The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.

The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers, empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.

The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.

Question 35: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. what is involved in the recycling movement

B. how to live sensitively to the environment.

C. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'

D. how to reduce garbage disposal

Question 36: What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?

A. cautious B. responding C. logical D. friendly

Question 37: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT .

A. reuse cups B. buy fewer hamburgers

C. buy high-quality product D. buy simply-wrapped things

Question 38: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?

A. Because they produce less energy.

B. Because they have to be repaired many times.

C. Because people will soon throw them away.

D. Because customers change their ideas all the time.

Question 39: The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to .

A. reference B. meaning C. value D. belief

Question 40: What best describes the process of reuse?

A. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.

B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.

C. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.

D. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.

Question 41: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because .

A. returned bottles are few.

B. people are ordered to return bottles.

C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic.

D. each returned bottle is paid.

Question 42: The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to .

A. deed B. belief C. exercise D. drill

Question 43: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?

A. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.

B. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings.

C. TV sets and aluminum cans.

D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.

Question 44: The energy used to make a can is the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours.

A. more than B. less than

C. not worth being compared to D. as much as

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

You can't escape the Internet

Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last decade, that we would be able to (45) our friends, colleagues and clients around the world simply through the (46) of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and has (47) the way we communicate.

In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (48) to the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (49)

consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (50) professional the company seems to be.

Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (51) are vast. More and more students are (52) on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.

What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (53) _ that 60% of homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children, students and professionals will be able to (54) and explore the world as they have never done before.

Question 50: A. more and more B. the more C. more D. the most

Question 51: A. take B. provide C. support D. miss

IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.

In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.

Question 55: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work

A. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service B. at college

C. as a researcher D. as a writer

Question 56: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?

A. Zoology B. History C. Oceanography D. Literature

Question 57: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of

A. 29 B. 45 C. 34 D. 26

Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind

A. was outdated

B. became more popular than her other books

C. was praised by critics

D. sold many copies

Question 59: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea around Us?

A. A research expedition B. Printed matter

C. Letters from scientists D. Talks with experts

Question 60: Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea around Us?

A. Poetic B. Highly technical C. Well-researched D. Fascinating

Question 61: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to

A. limited B. continuous C. irresponsible D. unnecessary

Question 62: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily

A. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry

B. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply

C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides

D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food

Question 63: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?

A. Offensive B. Logical C. Faulty D. Deceptive

Question 64: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee?

A. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment

B. To support Carson’s ideas

C. To validate the chemical industry’s claims

D. To provide an example of government propaganda

WRITING

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences printed before it.

Question 65: Helen didn’t have enough money for that camera.

→ If Helen...............................................................................................................................

Question 66: It was such a boring documentary film that she fell asleep.

→ The documentary film.......................................................................................................

Question 67: That girl's father used to work with mine.

→ That's the girl......................................................................................................................

Question 68: There's no point in asking George for help.

→ It isn't.................................................................................................................................

Question 69: "You didn't do what I said," the mother said to her son

→ The mother accused..........................................................................................................

Question 65: Helen didn’t have enough money for that camera.

→ If Helen had had enough money, she would (could) bought that camera.

Question 66: It was such a boring documentary film that she fell asleep.

→ The documentary film was so boring that she fell asleep.

Question 67: That girl's father used to work with mine.

→ That's the girl whose father used to work with mine.

Question 68: There's no point in asking George for help.

→ It isn't worth asking George for help.

Question 69: "You didn't do what I said," the mother said to her son

→ The mother accused her son of not doing what she had sad.

PART 2: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the reasons why friendship is important.

....................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................

-----------------THE END-----------------

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions.

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: The man refused to the hospital.

A. taking B. being taken C. taken D. to be taken

Question 7: Thanks to medical improvement, the rate in New Town has recently decreased.

A. death B. deaden C. dead D. deadly

Question 8: It is considered to interrupt others while they are doing the talking.

A. rude B. helpful C. polite D. arrogant

Question 9: His laziness resulted his failure in the final exam.

A. from B. in C. by D. of

Question 10: Sally speaks French. She even can't use her French to ask for directions.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little

Question 11: Jack: Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?

Jean: .

A. No, thanks B. Sorry, the seat is taken

C. Yes, yes. You can sit here D. Yes, I am so glad

Question 12: Some snakes lay eggs, but give birth to live offspring.

A. others B. the other C. other D. the others

Question 13: In most developed countries, up to 50% of population enters higher education at some time in their lives.

A. the/ x B. the/ the C. x/ x D. x/ the

Question 14: Never say that again, ?

A. don’t you B. won't you C. will you D. do you

Question 15: It's time the authorities people safety helmets whenever they ride their motorbike.

A. had/ to wear B. have/ worn C. have/ wear D. had/ wear

Question 16: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my in work.

A. eyes B. neck C. head D. nose

Question 17: Samuel Clemens, under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that reflected purely American traits and habits.

A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote

Question 18: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .

A. out of work B. out of stock C. out of practice D. out of reach

Question 19: If you had taken my advice, you in such difficulties now.

A. wouldn't be B. won’t be

C. hadn't been D. wouldn't have been

Question 20: You gave me precious help I am extremely grateful.

A. to which B. for that C. for which D. to that

Question 21: Be careful with your gun! You may somebody.

A. ache B. wound C. hurt D. injure

Question 22: This is a picture of a bus.

A. London red bright B. red bright London C. bright red London D. London bright red

Question 23: Does Tom own that car? --- No, I think his brother it now.

A. was owning B. is owning C. has owned D. owns

Question 24: John, goodbye to her.

that his girlfriend went out with another guy, decided to say

A. to believe B. believe C. believing D. believed

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences.

Question 25: There are many opportunities for work in the city.

A. possibilities B. disadvantages C. difficulties D. advantages

Question 26: Be careful! The tree is going to fall.

A. Look after B. Look up C. Look out D. Look on

Question 27: Although she is not a fashion model, her clothes are always up to the minute.

A. out of date B. modern C. time after time D. from time to time

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences.

Question 28: The farmers removed some undeveloped trees to improve the growth of the rest.

A. planted B. transferred C. eliminated D. fertilized

Question 29: I met famous people practically every day.

A. substantially B. scarcely C. relatively D. virtually

VI. Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence.

Question 30: Thirty billions dollars will be invested to build a high-speed train in Vietnam

A. high-speed train B. will be invested

C. Thirty billions dollars D. to build

Question 31: Thank you for your letter, which you invited me to your wedding.

A. which B. invited C. to your wedding D. for

Question 32: He had such little money that he couldn't buy a train ticket.

A. little B. couldn't buy C. such D. train ticket

Question 33: Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.

A. would reveal B. arresting C. Neither D. his group

Question 34: The computer software industry is one of the most competitive markets in today's techonological advanced society.

A. one of the most B. technological advanced

C. The computer software D. today's

VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle".

The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.

The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers, empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.

The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.

Question 35: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. what is involved in the recycling movement

B. how to live sensitively to the environment.

C. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'

D. how to reduce garbage disposal

Question 36: What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?

A. cautious B. responding C. logical D. friendly

Question 37: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT .

A. reuse cups B. buy fewer hamburgers

C. buy high-quality product D. buy simply-wrapped things

Question 38: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?

A. Because they produce less energy.

B. Because they have to be repaired many times.

C. Because people will soon throw them away.

D. Because customers change their ideas all the time.

Question 39: The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to .

A. reference B. meaning C. value D. belief

Question 40: What best describes the process of reuse?

A. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.

B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.

C. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.

D. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.

Question 41: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because .

A. returned bottles are few.

B. people are ordered to return bottles.

C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic.

D. each returned bottle is paid.

Question 42: The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to .

A. deed B. belief C. exercise D. drill

Question 43: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?

A. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.

B. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings.

C. TV sets and aluminum cans.

D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.

Question 44: The energy used to make a can is the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours.

A. more than B. less than

C. not worth being compared to D. as much as

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

You can't escape the Internet

Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last decade, that we would be able to (45) our friends, colleagues and clients around the world simply through the (46) of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and has (47) the way we communicate.

In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (48) to the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (49)

consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (50) professional the company seems to be.

Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (51) are vast. More and more students are (52) on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.

What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (53) that 60% of homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children, students and professionals will be able to (54) and explore the world as they have never done before.

Question 54: A. log on B. take on C. log off D. switch on

IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.

In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.

Question 55: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work

A. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service B. at college

C. as a researcher D. as a writer

Question 56: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?

A. Zoology B. History C. Oceanography D. Literature

Question 57: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of

A. 29 B. 45 C. 34 D. 26

Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind

A. was outdated

B. became more popular than her other books

C. was praised by critics

D. sold many copies

Question 59: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea around Us?

A. A research expedition B. Printed matter

C. Letters from scientists D. Talks with experts

Question 60: Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea around Us?

A. Poetic B. Highly technical C. Well-researched D. Fascinating

Question 61: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to

A. limited B. continuous C. irresponsible D. unnecessary

Question 62: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily

A. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry

B. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply

C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides

D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food

Question 63: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?

A. Offensive B. Logical C. Faulty D. Deceptive

Question 64: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee?

A. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment

B. To support Carson’s ideas

C. To validate the chemical industry’s claims

D. To provide an example of government propaganda

WRITING

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences printed before it.

Question 65: Helen didn’t have enough money for that camera.

→ If Helen...............................................................................................................................

Question 66: It was such a boring documentary film that she fell asleep.

→ The documentary film.......................................................................................................

Question 67: That girl's father used to work with mine.

→ That's the girl......................................................................................................................

Question 68: There's no point in asking George for help.

→ It isn't.................................................................................................................................

Question 69: "You didn't do what I said," the mother said to her son

→ The mother accused..........................................................................................................

Question 65: Helen didn’t have enough money for that camera.

→ If Helen had had enough money, she would (could) bought that camera.

Question 66: It was such a boring documentary film that she fell asleep.

→ The documentary film was so boring that she fell asleep.

Question 67: That girl's father used to work with mine.

→ That's the girl whose father used to work with mine.

Question 68: There's no point in asking George for help.

→ It isn't worth asking George for help.

Question 69: "You didn't do what I said," the mother said to her son

→ The mother accused her son of not doing what she had sad.

PART 2: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the reasons why friendship is important.

....................................................................................................................................................

-----------------THE END-----------------

I. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

PART 1: Circle the letter A, B, C or D that corresponds to the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. (20 points)

1. Neil Armstrong was the first man to foot on the moon.

A. try B. step C. set D. walk

2. Thomas Edison many new appliances using electricity during his long career.

A. invented B. inventing C. who invented D. was invented

3. further riot to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency powers.

A. Should B. Did C. Were D. Had

4. Jack doesn’t like such gossip and fallacy in sport.

A. to take himself on B. to get himself along C. engage himself in D. indulge himself of

5. New York and Tokyo are two of the most populated cities in the world.

A. greatly B. densely C. variously D. closely

6. It can take up to more than six months to a man to do this specialized work.

A. raise B. train C. learn D. practise

7. The longest movie I have ever seen in this cinema for three hours.

A. stayed B. got C. lasted D. spent

8. James was looking for a(n) to visit that wonderful island once again.

A. opportunity B. necessity C. destiny D. possibility

9. “Who is Susan getting married to?” _ “Some guy since her childhood.”

A. who she has known B. have known her C. that have known her D. she has been known

10. “I had to take a taxi from the party last night.” - “Oh. That’s too bad. You my car.”

A. could have used B. was able to use C. could be use D. can use

11. Jackie has given such a great that other dancers in the audience admire him so much.

A. performance B. result C. score D. action

12. The president has made many visits to Japan, began today.

A. whose recent one B. the most recent of which C. which D. the most recent one

13. “Is it difficult to keep fish as pets?” _ “No, there isn’t much care of them.”

A. to taking B. having taken C. to have taken D. taking

14. to Jim myself, I can’t tell why he would do such terrible things.

A. Not to be speaking B. Not to have spoken

C. Because of not being spoken D. Not having spoken

15. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable because it seems too good to be true.

A. doubt B. suspicion C. reservation D. disbelief

16. By the time we the top of mountain, I think the rain will have stopped.

A. arrive B. come C. get D. reach

17. people who were waiting for the bus under the rain down there are getting soak- wet.

A. Some B. Any C. Most of D. None

18. All fossil fuels are resources that can not be replaced quickly.

A. unlimited B. non-renewable C. renewable D. available

19. She came to the airport only to find out that she her passport at home.

A. would have left B. has left C. was leaving D. had left

20. At no time in history such a diligent and brilliant fellow.

A. has Peter and his classmates ever met B. have Peter and his classmates

C. Peter and his classmates ever met D. Peter and his classmates had ever met.

PART 2: Read the text and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct. And some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (x). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word. There are two examples at the beginning. (10 points)

Studying Law

PART 3: Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. Write your answers in the numbered boxes below. (10 points)

The increase in city crime is a global phenomenon. Some people say that a lot of crime in this country is because of (1 - migrate) and the new people arriving from other countries bring different (2 - culture) values and attitudes to the law. I don’t agree with this idea because the most common crimes are (3 - local) produced and not imported from other countries. (4 - Vandal) is one of the biggest crimes in my city with bus shelters and shop windows being popular targets. Another popular crime is (5 - pay) parking fines, which is unlikely to be because of immigrants because most of them do not own cars. The (6 - oppose) point of view is that young local people feel angry when they can’t get a job and in order to (7 - hand) the change in their environment, they strike out at easy targets. This would explain why bicycle (8 - thief) is more common than car crime these days, especially in rich (9 - neighbors) where most cars are protected with electronic alarms. Another reason, though, for so many bicycles getting stolen might be that the (10 - punish) is not very severe compared to car stealing which can land you in prison for a number of years.

PART 4: Complete these sentences with proper prepositions. (10 points)

1- This word has a lot of meanings.You should look it in a dictionary.

2- Jenny usually comes back her country Christmas Day.

3- Don’t use pencils. Please write the letter… ink.

4- My father made his mind to settle in the South.

5- Did you pick lots of English while you were in England?

6- Minh couldn’t start his motor engine.I think it ran… fuel.

7- A thief broke into his office last night and stole all money the safe.

8- Time is off now.Please hand your papers.

9- Local students have been banned taking part in the demonstration.

10- The police have charged her driving without due care and attention.

11- Football fans went the rampage in the center of Norwich last night.

12- The car left the road and crashed a tree.

13- Several guests at the hotel were robbed… jewelry and money.

14- David, 19, has been sleeping a park bench for the past six months.

15- They are hardly ever completely satisfied a performance.

II. READING

PART 1: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE appropriate word: (10 points)

The computer has brought nothing (1) problems to the world of the twentieth century.

Chief among the problems has (2) the dehumanization of society. People are no (3) human. Each of us is a series of numbers, numbers to be fed into computers. There are our credit card numbers, our bank account (4) , our social security numbers, our telephone and electricity numbers - the computer number game is endless.

What happens to these computerized numbers ? They are distributed to a network of government agencies and business (5) can use them to invade our privacy. The Internal Revenue Service stores millions of facts about every citizen. Credit agencies exchange (6) on the spending and saving practices of nearly every American adult. Mailing lists are (7) available by computers to dozens of organizations, public and private, who bombard us with unwanted mail.

Just let the computer which stores (8) concerning our accounts, let us say with a credit card company, make an error and it is almost impossible to correct it. The result is an avalanche of bills, threads, and loss of credit standing.

The computer has thrown thousands of people out of (9) . The gamut of computer- generated unemployed runs from highly skilled technicians to typists.

These are some of the reasons why I feel that the (10) of the computer has been detrimental to the quality of our life in the twentieth century.

PART 2: Read the following article about ice-skating. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-I for each part (1-8) of the article. Write your answers in the space in the numbered boxes below. There is one extra heading that is not to be used. (10 points)

1…………………………….

Ice skating has a history of thousands of years. Archaeologists have discovered skates made from animal bone. It seems that bone skates were used until the introduction of iron into Scandinavia about the year 200 AD. Among the Scandinavian upper classes, skating was seen as an essential skill.

2. …………………………….

In the early twentieth century, skating was stylish and reserved, but at the 1924 Winter Olympics, 11-year-old Sonja Hinnies introduced a more athletics attitude which inspired a new wave of popularity. Nowadays art and athletics are combined and modern skating is both graceful and physically demanding.

3. …………………………….

For beginners, balance and control are all important and speed can only increase with proficiency. The position of your body plays a great part in balance. Legs slightly bowed and the knees bent keep the body weight centered; in effect the body leans slightly forward in this position. For skating, probably more than any other sport or recreation, relaxation is vital.

4. …………………………….

For the skating position, the heels should almost be touching and the feet should be turned out wards. While pushing toward with a back foot, you make a very small movement with the other foot. Fairly easy, isn’t it? If you can keep this up for a while, you can then slowly increase the length of your movements as you gain experience.

5. …………………………….

Knowing how to fall must be learnt among the skater’s first skills. Even the best of the professionals fall. In order to fall without injury, you should be as relaxed as possible. In this way the sock of hitting the ice is lessened. To get up, use your hands to get into a kneeling position, then stand.

6. …………………………….

One you have learnt to move on the ice with confidence, there are various styles to be practised-figure skating, free styles, distance, speed, skating pairs, and so on- but the basics of them all, and by far the best approach, it first to learn figures can soon be learn figure skating and then elementary freestyle. With proper guidance available at most of the ice rinks, the basic figures can soon be learnt and the turns, jumps, and spins or elementary free style will so follow.

7. …………………………….

If you look at any good of professional skater, you will see how relaxed they are and how easily they move. To achieve this, an exercise program should be regularly practised. It can be

dangerous to skate with a stiff body and warm up exercises should at least include those for the legs, back and shoulders, with special emphasis on the ankles and the knees. After a long or intense session, the same exercises should be used afterwards to avoid stiffness.

8…………………………….

Skating improves balance, co-ordination, relaxation and movement. It improves heart and lung activity and generally strengthens the body. Combined with swimming or jogging, it provides a great program for all-round health and fitness.

PART 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Write A, B, C or D to indicate your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.

The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.

1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.

B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.

C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.

D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.

2. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is

A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density

4. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement

5. Neap tides occur when

A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction

B. the Moon is full

C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun

D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction

III. WRITING

A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points)

1. The keeper had no sooner opened the cage door than the lion attacked him. Hardly .

2. No other city in Vietnam is so large as Ho Chi Minh City. Ho Chi Minh City is .

3. They produce a lot of paper, so they need a lot of wood pulp. The more .

4. We spent our childhood in that beautiful mountain resort, and we always remember it. We always .

5. She insisted that she should be called Joyce. She insisted on .

6. It might be a good idea to use honey instead of sugar. Why .

7. When you lie, some gestures can show you are lying. Some gestures .

8. He never suspected that the money had been stolen. At no .

9. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band's decision to stop playing. The moment .

10. The only way to eliminate world terrorism is by untied opposition. Only by .

B. Write an essay to express your opinion about this saying “ Money can buy everything”. Do you agree with it? Give your own idea? (about 120-180 words) (10 points)

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

ĐÁP ÁN

I. LEXICO – GRAMMAR:

PART 1: Circle the letter A, B, C or D that corresponds to the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. (20 points)

II. READING PART 1:

PART 2:

PART 3:

III. WRITING A.

1. Hardly had the keeper opened the cage door when the lion attacked him.

2. HCM City is larger than any other city in Vietnam.

3. The more paper they produce, the more wood pulp they need.

4. We always remember spending our childhood in that beautiful mountain resort.

5. She insisted on being called Joyce.

6. Why don't you try using honey instead of sugar .

7. Some gestures can give you away when you lie.

8. At no time did he suspect (that) the money had been stolen.

9. The moment I got up to dance the band stopped playing

10. Only by united opposition can/will/could we eliminate world terrorism.

B. Composition: 10 points

Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:

- Thí sinh phải xác định được 2,3 giải pháp và các ý bổ sung.

- Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (chỉ cần dùng cấu trúc đơn giản mà diễn đạt rõ ý)

- Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ thì không trừ điểm ( về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ...)

- Giám khảo cân nhắc và vận dụng cho theo thang điểm: 0 - 0,5 - 1,0 - 1,5 - 2,0.

I. LISTENING

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU.

 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: For questions 1-10, listen to a conversation and fill in the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and /or A NUMBER for each answer in the spaces provided.

Silver Owl Campsite, Booking Form

 Reference: (1)

 Name of school: (2) High School

 Number in Group: 22

 Arrival: Friday, 22nd (3)

 Accommodation: (4) 5 x 5-person

 Facilities: (5) and pool Equipment: 5 bicycles

5 space hoppers

 (6) 10

 Contact name: Sarah (7)

 Phone number: (mobile) (8) Phone number: (eve) 02380 482 652

Email address: [email protected]

 Address: 76-78 (9) Terrace, Southampton Method of payment: school credit card

 Card number (if applicable): (10)

Part 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job and choose the best answer(A, B or C) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. Where is Angela working at the moment?

2. Angela likes her job because she

A. loves being in dangerous situations.

B. never knows where she'll go next.

C. enjoys watching important events happen.

3. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?

4. Where did Angela meet her boy friend?

5. What does Angela do to relax?

Part 3: For questions 1-10, listen to an interview with a woman called Grace Conolly who is talking about her travel experiences in New Zealand and fill in the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer in the spaces provided.

New Zealand Journey

 Grave traveled around south Island on something called (1) The first part of Grace's journey took her along the (2) coast of the island. When Grace took a day trip to a place called Kaikoura, she particularly wanted to see (3)

 Grace has kept in touch with a friend from (4) since she returned home.

 Grace took her own (5)_ to New Zealand, so didn't need to hire one.

 The best part of the trip for grace was jet-boating on the Buller River with a company called (6) .

 Grace had to visit a hospital because she injured her (7) .

 At a market, Grace bought a (8) to take home.

The name of the hostel that Grace particularly recommends is the (9)

 Grace plans to go (10) with friends when she next visits North Island.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer A, B, C or D in the numbered boxes.

1. the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.

2. I read the contract again and again avoiding making spelling mistakes.

3. It's a shame they didn't pick you up, but it doesn't out the possibility that you might get a job in a different department.

4. I reckon Mark is of a nervous breakdown.

5. Many local authorities realize there is a need to make for disabled people in their housing programs.

6. It turned out that we rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.

7. All three TV channels provide extensive of sporting events.

8. No matter how angry he was, he would never to violence.

9. as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.

10. , the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.

11. I am afraid that you have the deadline, so we can't take your application into account.

12. The main aim of the campaign is to raise of the issues involved.

13. After so many years, it is great to see him his ambitions.

14. It was confirmed that the accident was caused by human .

15. The roadworks made to the hotel from the main road difficult.

A. entrance B. approach C. access D. ways in

Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

priests) were (9) (REPUTE) able to predict the future on this point. When the Roman completed their (10) (CONQUER) of Celtic lands, they added their own flavour to this festival. The advent of Christianity brought about yet other changes.

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.

0. Could you deal this problem. I'm rather busy.

1. The Minister is also implicated the scandal.

2. Irrespective the poor weather conditions the search for the missing child was continued.

3. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it my disposal.

4. I met him at the party and he asked _ you.

5. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand in a crowd.

Part 5: Complete each sentence with a correct phrasal verb from the box. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. Each phrasal verb is used only once.

1. The managing director the company's poor performance to high interest rates.

2. The police were able to the car thieves using satellite technology.

3. This is a sensitive matter, and we have to dealing with it very carefully.

4. David's new album is expected to at the end of the year.

5. I hope this award will your disappointment at not winning the first prize.

6. The company has decided to production of cars at its factory in Hull.

7. You might need a calculator to this problem.

8. Claire decided to the job, because it would have meant more travelling.

9. Our maths teacher simply won't any talking in class.

10. Helen is going to the airport to some friends.

III. READING

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes.

The Mysterious Isle

In the early morning of 23 January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit western France. With wind speeds in (1) of 120 miles per hour, it flattened forests, (2)

down power lines and caused massive destruction to buildings and roads. But it also left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to sea at the (3) where the Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island had (4) out of water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious Isle. What was so remarkable, (5) its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (6) intact in what is often quite a hostile sea environment. It could well become a permanent feature.

Scientists (7) realized that the island's appearance (8) a unique opportunity to study the creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it had been colonised by seabirds, insects and vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they were not alone in (9)

the island attractive. It became increasingly difficult to (10) the site from human visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in powered dinghies, a parachute club used it as a landing strip, a rave party was even held there one night.

Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.

Enjoy the benefits of stress!

Are you looking forward to another busy week? You should be according to some experts. They argue that the stress encountered in our daily lives is not only good for us, but essential to survival. They say that the response to (1) , which creates a chemical called adrenal in, helps the mind and body to act quickly (2) emergencies. Animals and human beings use it to meet the hostile conditions which exist on the planet.

Whilst nobody denies the pressures of everyday life, what is surprising is that we are yet to develop successful ways of dealing with them. (3) the experts consider the current strategies to be inadequate and often dangerous. They believe that (4) of trying to manage our response to stress with drugs or relaxation techniques, we must exploit it. Apparently, research shows that people (5) create conditions of stress for (6) by doing exciting and risky sports or looking for challenges, cope much better with life's problems. Activities of this type have been shown to create a lot of emotion; people may actually cry or feel extremely uncomfortable. But there is a point (7) which they realise they have succeeded and know that it was a positive experience. This is because we learn through challenge and difficulty. That's (8) we get our wisdom. Few of us, unfortunately, understand this fact. For

example, many people believe they (9) from stress at work, and take time off as a result. Yet it has been found in some companies that by far (10) healthiest people are those with the most responsibility. So next time you're in a stressful situation, just remember that it will be a positive learning experience and could also benefit your health!

Part 3: Read the following passage. For question 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

Day after day we hear about how anthropogenic development is causing global warming. According to an increasingly vocal minority, however, we should be asking ourselves how much of this is media hype and how much is based on real evidence. It seems, as so often is the case, that it depends on which expert you listen to, or which statistics you study.

Yes, it is true that there is a mass of evidence to indicate that the world is getting warmer, with one of the world's leading weather predictors stating that air temperatures have shown an increase of just under half a degree Celsius since the beginning of the twentieth century. And while this may not sound like anything worth losing sleep over the international press would have us believe that the consequences could be devastating. Other experts, however, are of the opinion that what we are seeing is just part of a natural upward and downward swing that has always been part of the cycle of global weather. An analysis of the views of major meteorologists in the United States showed that less than 20% of them believed that any change in temperature over the last hundred years was our own fault-the rest attributed it to natural cyclical changes.

There is, of course, no denying that we are still at a very early stage in understanding weather. The effects of such variables as rainfall, cloud formation, the seas and oceans, gases such as methane and ozone, or even solar energy are still not really understood, and therefore the predictions that we make using them cannot always be relied on. Dr. James Hansen, in 1988, was predicting that the likely effects of global warming would be a raising of world temperature which would have disastrous consequences for mankind: "a strong cause and effect relationship between the current climate and human alteration of the atmosphere". He has now gone on record as stating that using artificial models of climate as a way of predicting change is all but impossible. In fact, he now believes that, rather than getting hotter, our planet is getting greener as a result of the carbon dioxide increase, with the prospect of increasing vegetation in areas which in recent history have been frozen wastelands.

In fact. there is some evidence to suggest that as our computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated, the predicted rises in temperature have been cut back. In addition, if we look at the much reported rise in global temperature over the last century, a close analysis reveals that the lion's share of that increase, almost three quarters in total, occurred before man began to 'poison' his world with industrial processes and the accompanying greenhouse gas emissions in the second half of the twentieth century.

So should we pay any attention to those stories that scream out at us from billboards and television news headlines, claiming that man, with his inexhaustible dependence on oil-based machinery and ever more sophisticated forms of transport is creating a nightmare level of 'greenhouse gas emissions, poisoning his environment and ripping open the ozone layer? Doubters point to scientific evidence. which can prove that, of all the greenhouse gases, only two percent come from man-made sources, the rest resulting from natural emissions.

Who, then, to believe: the environmentalist exhorting us to leave the car at home, to buy re- usable products packaged in recycled paper and to plant trees in our back yard? Or the sceptics, including, of course, a lot of big businesses who have most to lose, when they tell us that we are making a mountain out of a molehill? And my own opinion? The jury's still out as far as I am concerned!

1. The author

A. believe that man is causing global warming.

B. believes that global warming is a natural process.

C. is sure what the causes of global warming are.

D. does not say what he believes the causes of global warming are.

2. As to the cause of global warming, the author believes that

A. occasionally the facts depend on who you are talking to.

B. the facts always depend on who you are talking to.

C. often the facts depend on which expert you listen to.

D. you should not speak to experts.

3. More than 80% of the top meteorologists in the United States are of the opinion that

A. global warming should make us lose sleep.

B. global warming is not the result of natural cyclical changes but man-made.

C. the consequences of global warming will be devastating.

D. global warming is not man-made, but the result of natural cyclical changes.

4. Our understanding of weather

A. leads to reliable predictions.

B. is variable.

C. cannot be denied.

D. is not very developed yet.

5. Currently, Dr James Hansen's beliefs include the fact that

A. it is nearly impossible to predict weather change using artificial models.

B. the consequences of global warming would be disastrous for mankind.

C. there is a significant link between the climate now, and man's changing of the atmosphere.

D. Earth is getting colder.

For questions 6-10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes with YES, NO, or NOT GIVEN:

Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage Not given if there is no information about the statement in the passage.

6. At the same time that computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated, weather forecasters have become more expert.

7. Most of the increase in global temperature happened in the second half of the twentieth century.

8. The media wants us to blame ourselves for global warming.

9. The media encourages the public to use environmentally friendly vehicles, such as electric cars to combat global warming.

10. Many big businesses are on the side of the sceptics as regards the cause of global warming.

Your answers:

IV. WRITING

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it.

Part 2: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (0) has been done as an example.

0. Fiona refused to wear her old dress. (not)

Fiona said that she would not wear her old dress.

Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:

“The widespread use of the Internet has brought many problems. What do you think are the main problems associated with the use of the web? What solutions can you suggest”?

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ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM KỲ THI HSG TỈNH MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11 TỔNG ĐIỂM TOÀN BÀI: (20 điểm)

I. LISTENING (3 điểm)

Part 1: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

Part 2: (5 câu x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm)

Part 3: (10 câu x 0,1 = 1 điểm)

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (7,5 điểm) Part 1: (15 câu x 0,15 = 2,25 điểm)

Part 2: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

Part 3: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

Part 4: (5 câu x 0,15 = 0,75)

Part 5:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

III. READING (4,5 điểm)

Part 1:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

Part 2: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

Part 3:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

IV. WRITING. ( 5 điểm) Part 1: (5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)

1. Exhausted as / though Mary was / might be, she agreed to join the activity.

2. The minute / moment we have received the information , we'll let you know.

3. Only by using it ( a language) regularly, can you really master a language (it).

4. Nobody is to blame for the match cancellation / the match's cancellation / the cancellation of the match / the fact that the match was canceled.

5. I have no intention of apologizing / apologizing to either of them.

Part 2: (5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)

1. As long as he could see, it made no difference to Kevin where he sat in the stadium.

2. We should have been informed of / about the change of the date.

3. Jane was talked into entering the competition by her family.

4. It never occurred to us that Julian might be planning to resign from his job.

5. Sally was on the point of leaving the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.

Part 2: (3 điểm) Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa vào các yêu cầu sau:

- Task fulfillment (idea/content): 30%

- Essay organization (coherence, cohesion); 30%

- Vocabulary/structures (variety, accuracy, appropriacy): 30%

- Handwriting, essay layout ... : 10%

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

- Nội dung nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.

I- You will hear a radio announcer talking about Plymouth Sea Life Centre. For each question, fill in the missing information in the blanks.

PLYMOUTH SEA LIFE CENTRE

COST

Adults (1) pounds, children 2.00 pounds.

Special prices for over sixties and school groups.

OPENING TIMES

Every day except 25 and 26 December.

FOR CHILDREN - (special quiz)

Animals are fed every (2) from 9.30 am.

Slide and (3) shows from 10.00 am.

GROUPS

Guided tours available - ask at the (4) ……………………….. .

NEW ATTRACTION

Walk through the big (5) made of glass.

REFRESHMENTS

Family area sells (6) , cold drinks, ice creams.

FOR MORE INFORMATION TELEPHONE 01743 564219

II- You will hear an interview with a student called Sarah Mercer, who is planning to become a weather forecaster. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1- Why did Sarah first become interested in the weather?

A. She studied weather in school science lessons.

B. She had experience of bad weather where she lived.

C. She saw programmes about weather on TV.

2- Who encouraged Sarah‟s interest in the weather at home?

A. her mother

B. her father

C. her grandfather

3- Pupils at Sarah‟s school club

A. produced a book about the weather.

B. provided information to the school for projects.

C. set up equipment for studying the weather.

4- What mistake did Sarah‟s family make during a sailing trip?

A. They didn‟t recognise signs of bad weather coming.

B. They hadn‟t made preparations for bad weather.

C. They failed to check weather forecasts regularly.

5- Sarah thinks in future she’d like to

A. work in the area of sport.

B. be on TV weather programmes.

C. travel abroad for her job.

6- What kind of weather does Sarah like best?

A. when the sun is shining

B. when it‟s raining hard

C. when there’s fog

PART B. PHONETICS ((1.0 point))

I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point)

II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)

PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).

1. the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.

A. Until B. In C. By D. On

2. They are going to make excursion next month.

A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week's

3. He refused to give up work , he had won a million pounds.

A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though

4. The new system didn’t expectations.

A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to

5. The newspaper report contained important information.

A. many B. another C. an D. a lot of

6. You better be careful not to miss the train.

A. would B. should C. had D. did

7. Helen asked me the film called “Stars Wars”.

A. have I seen B. have you seen C. If I had seen D. if had I seen

8. She had no of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grandmother.

A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion

9. The noise from the boat engine might disturb sea animals.

A. comes B. came C. coming D. has come

10. I’m really looking forward to university.

A. to go B. go C. going D. to going

11. “Let’s go dancing, ……………?” - “Yes, let’s”

A. will we B. do we C. don’t we D. shall we

12. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just , please.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little.

13. As the drug took , the patient got better.

A. force B. influence C. action D. take effect

14. Secondary schools offer a wide of subjects.

A. field B. scope C. list D. range

15. We are very happy to have received a(n) of 500 dollars from a foreign company.

A. charity B. donation C. hospital D. organization

16. How many are there in the competition?

A. participants B. participations C. participative D. participates

17. Young volunteers often help the sick or the aged to clean their houses.

A. on B. off C. up D. in

18. Jim her on passing the final exams.

A. thanked B. prevented C. congratulated D. warned

19. The party I was the guest of honors was extremely enjoyable.

A. by which B. at which C. for which D. to which

20. We don't allow in the classrooms.

A. people smoke B. smoke C. people to smoke D. to smoking

21. A wedding is a wonderful opportunity for off new clothes.

A. wearing B. carrying C. showing D. putting

22. It’s a good idea to see your doctor regularly for ……………

A. a revision B. a control C. an investigation D. a check-up

23. He said that the plane had already left and that I arrived an hour earlier.

A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to

24. Yuri Gagarin was the first person into space.

A. flew B. to fly C. flown D. fly

25. Many parents do not let their children make a decision their future career.

A. in B. about C. on D. out

26. Anne: “Make yourself at home”. - John: “ ”

A. Yes, can I help you B. Not at all. Don’t mention it

C. Thanks! Same to you D. That’s very kind. Thank you

27. saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

A. What the woman was B. The woman was

C. That the woman was D. What was the woman

28. We were so late that we had time to catch the train.

A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply

29. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.

A. endanger B. dangerous C. danger D. endangered

30. In 1870, , John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.

A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices

C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating

31. - “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” - “ ”

A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I don’t mind

32. He had an excellent grade in his examination the fact that he hadn't worked

particularly hard.

A. despite B. although C. because of D. on account of

33. Opposite our house there is a large park, there are beautiful trees and flowers.

A. where B. in that C. which D. that

34 earlier, I would have done it for you.

A. Had I known B. If I knew C. Should I know D. Were I to know

35. Only when you grow up the truth.

A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know

36. We delayed our departure the weather condition.

A. in spite of B. on account of C. instead of D. on behalf of

37. During the rush hour the traffic in the city centre is terrible.

A. condensation B. accumulation C. concentration D. congestion

38. Don’t be silly! That possibly be Madonna!

A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. won’t D. can’t

39. Mike is not feeling well so we gave him to do than you.

A. fewer B. little work C. less work D. least works

40. Our friends won a big prize when he took part in the on TV last week.

A. game show B. news C. music program D. weather forecast

II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections. (0.5 point)

1. Scientists and economists believe that human beings can never use away all the mineral

A B C D

resources on Earth.

2. Plants and animals live in the sea sank to the sea bed when they died. A B C D

3. Learning a foreign language enables a student develop an understanding of another

A B C D

culture.

4. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. A B C D

5. In a laboratory experiment, an investigator often begins by work out different conditions for two groups of subjects. A B

C D

III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)

1. Earth Hour is a event organized to raise people’s awareness about the

need to take action on climate change. (WORLD)

2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ........................................ sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)

3. This organization is very concerned about the of the rain forests.

(DESTROY).

4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ...................................

(NECESSARY)

5. Two… from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students.

(REPRESENT)

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points )

Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.

After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.

Although the growth in Canada's population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War

C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada

2. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945

C. During the depression of the 1930's D. In 1966

3. The word "five" in line 2 refers to

A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages

4. The word "surging" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising

5. The author suggests that in Canada during the1950's

A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married

C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high

6. The word "trend" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive

7. The word "peak" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum

8. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951

9. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier

C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses

10. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution

A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable

C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad

II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (2.0 points )

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.

The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals

C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.

2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

A. It helps them hide from predators. B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.

C. It helps them see their young at night D. It keeps them cool at night.

3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying

4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day

C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking

6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce

7. What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water

C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.

8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly

C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food.

9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

A. To show how they use camels.

B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival.

D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated

C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.

III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point)

The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ...................... and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been (2)......................

by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (3). of

the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (4)..........................on computers. They think that computers themselves are (5) too

powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.

One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (6) If a

computer is (7) , the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n)

(8)......................... in it, the computer‟s calculation can be seriously (9)........................... . A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could (10) terrible mistakes.

PART E. WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)

0. Can you close window, please?  Would you mind closing the window?

1. “I am sorry that I broke the glass” said Jim.

Jim apologised .

2. I really think you ought to take some exercises.

It is high time

3. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.

No sooner

4. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.

The sooner

5. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.

So

6. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.

I’d rather

7. The value of these goods has fallen considerably in the past week.

There has

8. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.

Despite

9. “Shall we go to Paris for the weekend, John?” Mary asked.

Mary suggested

10. It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.

The accident

II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in the brackets. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 point)

0. The next Olympic Games will be held in Asia (take)

 The next Olympic Games will take place in Asia.

1. I offered to help her but she said “No, thanks” (turned)

She

2. I would prefer you not to phone me at work. (rather)

I

3. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (intention)

He has

4. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him. (point)

I told him that

5. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money.(matter)

No

III. Write an essay (about 230 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)

In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as computers or television or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? Use reasons and specific details to explain your choice.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ĐÁP ÁN

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)

SECTION 1. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points)

0.3 point for each correct answer:

1.-3.70hour 2. hour 3-videos 4-information desk 5-tunnel 6-snacks SECTION 2. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points).

0.3 point for each correct answer:

1- B 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-C 6-B

PART B . PHONETICS ((1.0 point))

I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).

II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B,C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections . (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

41. C 42.B 43.C 44.C 45. B

III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. Worldwide 2. Alternative 3. Destruction

4. Necessities 5. Representatives

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . (2.0 points)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D

6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A

II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . (2.0 points)

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A

6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D

III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A

6.B 7.D 8.D 9.B 10.D

PART E. WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. (0). (2.0 points)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. Jim apologised for breaking the glass.

2. It is high time you took some exercises

3. No sooner had he returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter.

4. The sooner we (can) solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.

5. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.

6. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.

7. There has been a considerable fall/decrease in the value of these goods in the past week.

8. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.

9. Mary suggested (John and her) going to Paris for the weekend.

10. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.

II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in the brackets. (1.0 point)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. She turned down my offer of help.

2. I would rather you did not phone me at work.

3. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.

4. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.

5. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.

III. Write an essay (about 230 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points) Marking scheme:

1. Format. (0.2 point) - The composition has three parts: The introduction, the body, the conclusion.

2. Content. (1.0 point) a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.

3. Language. (0.5point) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.

4. Presentation. (0.3point) coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.

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