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PART A: PHONETICS (3 points)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point)

1. A. interest B. finish C. climate D. panic

2. A. heavy B. headache C. weather D. each

3. A. met B. effort C. chemistry D. explain

4. A. disabled B. retarded C. arrived D. learned

5: A. classes B. families C. arms D. fingers

II. Choose the word which has the different stress pattern from those of other three words.

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point)

6. A. morning B. evening C. weather D. cartoon

7. A. development B. population C. photography D. activity

8. A. easy B. every C. effort D. enjoy

9. A. canteen B. physics C. teacher D. danger

10. A. education B. occupation C. geography D. information.

III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence (1 point)

11. She has the habit of drinking ………… after every meal.

A. cup of tea . B. a cup of tea C. a tea cup D. a cup for tea

12. The ……….… are those who do not have a job.

A. injured B. sick . C. unemployed D. rich

13. A person who is more beautiful in photographs is said to be ………..

A. photography B. photograph C. photographic D. photogenic

14. A …………. is a film or a radio or television program giving facts about something.

A. documentary B. comedy C. cartoon D. news

15. You can change the TV chanels with this ………..… control.

A. far . B. remote C. standby D. special

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point)

IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (3 point)

16. Some whales migrate into warm waters to bear their....................

A. young B. diets C. calves D. young whales

17. Paul didn't ............... in Canada.

A. lived B. use to live C. used to live D. used to living

18. The port is capable................ handing 10 million tons of coal a year.

A. in B. on C. of D. for

19. Being ………….., the boy is unable to speak.

A. deaf B. dumb C. illiterate D. disabled

20. The work was really ……………. It took him nearly 13 hours!

A. time-consuming B. long C. length D. extensive

21. No worries, I will…………..you up at six.

A. pick B. drive C. give a lift D. collect.

22. I tried to solve the problem ………….. the noise and interruptions.

A. according to B. in spite of C. in case of D. because of.

23. Farming ………….. have been more and more improved.

A. ways B. methodologies C. methods D. means.

24. ……………. economic and technological development, our life has been improved.

A. Because B. Thanks to C. Despite D. Although.

25. . ……… is one of the most interesting subjects at school.

A. Physic B. The Physic C. The Physics D. Physics

26. The ……… are those who do not have a job.

A. injured B. sick . C. unemployed D. rich

27. I have to get my picture ......................... for my Website.

A. take B. taken C. taking D. took

28. You haven’t got ………… luggage, have you?

A. many B. few C. a few D. much

29. We should protect plants and animals of the sea to keep its ………………...

A. resource B. energy C. existence D. biodiversity

30. What should we do to reduce the level of ………….....?

A. pollutes B. pollution C. pollute D. polluting V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences. (2 point)

31. The dog …………..…… the cat before we could save it.

A. has killed B. was killing C. had killed D. will kill

32.. …………..… his lack of time, he watches football every Sunday.

A. Although B. Because C. In spite of D. Because of

33. She can’t get home ……… she has no money.

A. if B. unless C. until D. without

34. “Do you know anything about birds?”

“ Yes, when I was a child I ……… bird books.”

A. used to read B. was used to read C. used to reading D. use to read

35.. If he ………… harder, the results will be better.

A. work . B. works C. has work D. will wor

36. Mary is interested in ………… Vietnamese.

A. to learn B. learn . C. learning D. leant

37. He’s always late for class, ………… annoys the teacher.

A. which B. that C. what D. who

38. Would you like ……… with me to night?

A. going out B. go out . C. to go out D. to be going out

39.. Playing computer games for 12 hours every day ……… him exhausted.

A. make B. making . C. makes D. made

40. Since we came late we ……… the first part of the film.

A. missed B. caught C. forgot D. left

VI. Give the correct form of the verbs .

Write your answers in the numbered box (1 point)

41. He could get rid of his cough if he (not smoke)…………….. so much.

42. Do you mind ( travel)……………. every day?

43. So far, I ……………….( meet) that famous singer twice.

44. John gets used to ( live)…………………in noisy places.

45. Were he ten years younger, he (take) …………………part in the voyage around the world.

PART C : READING (5 points)

VII. Read the following passage and then choose the best option for each numbered space: Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (2points)

Someone once said that there are three kinds of people who are interested in sport: People who … (46)…… part in, people who watch, and people who watch ….. (47)…… television. It’s very easy to make fun of stay-at-home sports fans but on the other hand, television does enable us to enjoy all kinds of ….. (48)…… events. We can watch a racing car ….. (49)…… another, see a cyclist cross the finishing line, or enjoy the goals of our favorite football.. … (50)..... The first time I watched a tennis match was on television, and I found it ..… (51) ..… interesting. It’s not always easy to …… (52) ….. long distance to football grounds and television is a good solution. Of course, you can ….. (53)….. used to sitting indoors all the time, and this is dangerous. We should all try to ..… (54)…… fit, and have other interests and … .(55) ..…..

46. A. take B. have C. make D. get

47. A. on B. with C. by D. from

48. A. the B. future C. sports D. athlete

49. A. cross B. overtake C. or D. from

50. A. group B. class C. band D. team

51. A. valuable B. imaginatively C. unexpectedly D. real

52. A. trip B. tour C. pass D. travel

53. A. or B. which C. get D. is

54. A. keep B. make C. do D. have

55. A. customs B. habits C. pastimes D. leisure

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Write your answers in the numbered blanks box. (1 points)

Water, one of the two elements that are essential to life, covers 90 percent of the earth’s surface. However, despite appearances, water that is drinkable is rare on our planet. In the past, we have considered air and water to be free; but we cannot do so any more. Although we have oceans, seas, rivers, and glaciers, we need to protect our drinking supplies. As global warming increase, ice floes melt into the oceans. The deserts are increasing in size as they encroach upon and absorb arable land. Drought and scarcity of water are an increasing feature of our everyday lives.

A good example of our problems is California. It has a reputation as a fertile state. Nevertheless, for years it has been short of water, and, since the 1980s, has been suffering from prolonged drought. Florida, too, has water problems and is trying to stop salt water from seeping into its underground reserves. Floods occur regularly but do not provide enough water to compensate for periods of drought. Both the bloods and the drought demonstrate that we lack control and that we are unable to manage this primary resource.

56. According to this article, what are the two “elements” that are essential to life?

A. Water and milk B. Rice and water

C. Water and air D. Fire and water

57. Which of the following words is a synonym of “free” in the first paragraph?

A. Easy B. Without cost C. Everywhere D. Unattached

58. In the second paragraph, what is Florida?

A. A river B. A glacier C. A village D. A state

59. Which of the following is NOT a synonym of “demonstrate” in the last sentence?

A. Prove B. Show C. Give evidence of D. March

60. What does “it” in the first line of second paragraph refer to?

A. California B. Drough C. Florida D. The problem of salinity

IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (2 points)

As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18^th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.

Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19^th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19^th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.

61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?

A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers

62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a __________.

A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man

C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse

63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as ___________.

A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter

B. a good old man with less religious character

C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.

D. a jolly man on horseback.

64. Who was Black Peter?

A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas

C. one of the disobedient children

B. an elf who rode a white horse

D. a popular traditional figure

65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?

A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities

C. effects D. outer appearance

66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?

A. the North Pole B. Europe

C. North America D. the City of New York

67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ____________.

A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem.

B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular.

C. Saint Nicholas visited New York.

D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed

68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem,

A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.

B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.

C. Santa Claus liked poetry.

D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.

69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that________

A. the New York Sun was popular with children.

B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.

C. newspapers are unreliable.

D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun.

70. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.

B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.

C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.

D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.

PART D: WRITING (6 points)

X. Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and then correct it.

Write your answers in the numbered box. (1point)

71. I advised you(A) starting looking (B)for a (C)flat (D) at once

72.  Mr Binh (A) taught maths (B) in this school (C) for 30 (D) years .    

73.   Joan’s party (A) had already started (B) in the time I (C) got (D) there 

74. She (A) looks forward to (B) see her new (C)friend whom she only talked to(C)on the phone.

75.  (A) The young (B)is very active and they can (C)continue our unfinished (D) work.

Your answers:

XI. Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words or phrases.( 2,4 points )

76. Tan rides to Vinh Long for 2 hours.

=> It takes...........................................................................................

77. 'What does Frank do for a living?' asked the man.

=> The man asked .................................................................................................

78. 'Why don't we sing a few songs?'.He said.

=> He suggested ......................................................................................................

79. It’s three years since I started using this bicycle.

=> I have …………………………………………………………………………

80. The man is blind,Julia is talking to him

=> The man whom ……………………………………………………………….

81. They want to buy a bigger house but they don’t have enough money.

=> If they ……………………………………………………………………..

82. He left school and then he joined the army.

=> After he …………………………………………………………………..

83. People believe that he speaks six languages fluently.

=> He is ………………………………………………………………………

84. “ I’ll bring the book back at 7a.m,” said Philip.

=> Philip promised …………………………………………………………….

85. If the bus hadn’t been late ,I would have gone to school on time this morning.

=> Unless ………………………………………………………………………….

86. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.

=> The old lady was................................................................................

87. If you have completed your test, you can go home.

=> Get......................................................................................................

XII. Write a short paragraph (about 150 words) about advantages and disadvantages of playing computer games.(2,6 points)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

**** The end *****

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS (3 points)

I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

II:Choose the word which has the different stress pattern from those of other three words. ( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

.Answer keys:

III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence. ( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point)

IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. ( 3 points – 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys:

V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences. (2 points - 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

VI. Give the correct form of the verbs.( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence).

Answer keys:

PART C : READING (5 points)

VII. Read the following passage and then choose the best option for each numbered space.( 2points – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (2points)

Answer keys:

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Write your answers in the numbered blanks box. (1 points– 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (2 points)

PART D: WRITING (6 points) X. Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and then correct it. ( 1point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

XI. Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words or phrases.(2,4 points– 0,2 points/ sentence)

1. It takes Tan 2 hours to ride to Vinh Long.

2. The man asked what Frank did for a living.

3. He suggested singing a few songs.

4. I have used this bicycle for three years.

5. The man whom Julia is talking to,is blind.

6. If they had enough money, they would buy a bigger house.

7. After he had left school, he joined the army.

8. He is believed to speak six languages fluently.

9. Philip promised to bring the book back at 7a.m.

10. Unless the bus had been late, I would have gone to school on time this morning.

11. was robbed of her hand bag.

12. your test completed/ finished and you can go home.

XI. Write a short paragraph (about 150 words) about advantages and disadvantages of playing computer games.(2,6 points)

- Grammar : 0,65 points.

- Vocabulary : 0,65 points.

- Coherence : 0,65 points.

- content / idea : 0,65 points

**** The end *****

PART I. LISTENING

Section 1: Listen and tick (✓) the box (10 points). There is one example.

00. Which is Bill’s uncle?

A B C

01. Which is Sally’s baby cousin?

A B C

02. What’s Fred doing after school?

A B C

03. What did Paul do in the holiday?

A B C

04. Which clown did Anna see?

A B C

05. Where’s Jim’s DVD games?

A B C

Section 2. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

(10 points)

PART II. PHONETICS

Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5 points)

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10 points)

16. When I was a child, I used to___________ in that house.

A. live B. to live C. living D. to living

17. I am having some days___________ tomorrow. I will visit you.

A. off B. of C. out D. in

18. It___________ better if they would tell everybody in advance.

A. is B. will be C. would be D. were

19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___________.

A. working machines B. useless machines C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machine

20. Do you know the man_________ next to our teacher?

A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand

21. Hoa and Quan quarreled_________ each other sometime.

A. in B. at C. with D. by

22. “Where do you live now?” – “I live in Hanoi; my__________.

A. parents too do B. parents do C. parents do, too D. parents also do.

23. A number of students___________ volunteered to the job.

A .having B. has C.to have D. have

24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___________ learn spoken English better.

A. so as B. so that C. in order that D. in order to

25. Amy, ___________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood.

A. who B. whom C. whose D. that

II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points)

26. I’m glad to know that you are going___________ a picnic.

27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___________ snow.

28. In this company, everybody is responsible___________ turning off the lights before leaving.

29. The boy fell___________ the water and was drowned.

30. He suffered___________ constant sleepiness.

31. They have been absent___________ school very often lately.

32. Is she capable___________ using computers?

33. They have made use___________ the house after remodeling it.

34. They stayed___________ home because Andy wasn’t keen___________ going out in the rain.

35. I wrote the letter to complain___________ the good I bought in the shop.

III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points)

36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___________ research.

37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___________.

38. He wants (WIDTH)___________ his knowledge of the subject.

39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___________ species.

40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___________ device?

41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___________ of animals in national parks.

42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___________ of old and new.

43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___________.

44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___________ of living in a big city.

45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___________.

PART IV. READING

I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10 points)

SPRING

When is the Spring season?

Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)________ to the season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During Spring an important celebration (47)________: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and April 25 in Western (48)________, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity.

What happens in spring?

Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)________. The days grow longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)________. You can also contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___________ of hibernation.

What to do during the Spring Season?

There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring:

Plan a holiday and (52)_________ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore!

Take a walk in a (53)_________ of flowers.

Meditate: Contemplate and (54)_________ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature.

Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)__________.

46. A. takes B. has C. means D. refers

47. A. takes part in B. takes note C. takes into D. takes place

48. A. hope B. interest C. tradition D. belief

49. A. recall B. reproduce C. repeat D. remove

50. A. hot B. scorching C. temperate D. cold

51. A. come into B. come after C. come before D. come out

52. A. make B. take C. have D. get

53. A. plot B. bunch C. field D. pack

54. A. reflect B. describe C. show D. draw

55. A. rebuilding B. rebirth C. reconstruction D. reminder

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)

These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated.

The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees.

These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.

56. The subject of the paragraph before paragraph 1 was mostly likely_________.

A. the creation of the killer bee B. the chemical nature of killer bees attacks

C. stories in the media about killer bees D. ways of producing honey

57. The word "inflated" in paragraph 1 means_________.

A. aired B. exaggerated C. blown D. burst

58. Why were African bees considered beneficial?

A. They spent their time traveling.

B. They were productive, even in inclement weather.

C. They produced an unusual type of honey.

D. They didn't work hard in inclement weather.

59. The word 'their' in paragraph 2 refers to_________.

A. the European bees' B. the African bees'

C. the killer bees' D. the honey bees'

60. It is stated in the passage that killer bees_________.

A. are less aggressive than African bees B. never attacks animals

C. are more deadly than African bees D. always attack African bees

61. The pronoun 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to_________.

A. humans and animals B. fatalities C. experts D. killer bees

62. Which is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees?

A. Panic by the victims B. The odor of isoamyl acetate

C. Disturbance of the bees D. Inclement weather

63. In which paragraph does the author describe the size of the groups in which killer bees move?

A. Paragraph 3 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 2 and 3 D. Paragraph 1

64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of killer bees?

A. attack humans and animals

B. are aggressive by nature

C. travel in large clusters

D. are a combination of European honeybee and African bee

65. The main idea of this passage is that killer bee_________.

A. are not purebred

B. have been moving unexpectedly

C. have been in the news a lot recently

D. are not as aggressive as their reputation suggests

PART V. WRITING

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 points)

66. Tom hasn’t watched a football match for 2 months.

→ The last_____________________________________________________________.

67. “You should apply for that job. It is suitable for you.” Kevin said to me.

→ Kevin________________________________________________________________.

68. I didn’t have time so I was late.

→ If ____________________________________________________________________.

69. It is necessary to give the employee a full bonus.

→ _______________________________________________________________________.

70. What I saw in the football match surprised me .

→ I_______________________________________________________________________.

71. His second attempt on the world record was successful.

→ He broke_____________________________________________________________.

72. They were all arrested because of his incompetence.

→ Had__________________________________________________________________.

73. Please don’t smoke in the kitchen.

→ I’d rather____________________________________________________________.

74. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean”, said her mother.

→ Jean’s mother complimented ______________________________________.

75. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements.

→ Much________________________________________________________________.

II. The number of people using computers is increasing rapidly. What are the benefits of a computer?

You should write a paragraph of about 250 words on this topic. (10 points)

________THE END________

ĐÁP ÁN

PART I: LISTENING

Section 1. (10pts) 01. A 02. B 03. A 04. B 05.C

Section 2. (10pts) 06. Business plan 07. 3 days 08. book keeping

09. 18th April 10. [email protected]

PART II. PHONETICS

Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)

11. D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)

16. A 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C

II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts)

26. on 27. with 28. for 29. into 30. from

31. from 32. of 33. of 34. at – on 35. about

III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)

36. scientific       37. permission     38. widen  39. endangered

40. miraculous 41. variety 42. combination 43. competition

44. disadvantages 45. poverty

PART IV. READING

I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10pts)

46. D 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)

56. C 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D

PART V. WRITING

I. (10pts)

66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago.

67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job.

68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late.

69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus.

(It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.)

70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match.

71. He broke the world record in his second attempt.

72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested.

73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen.

74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress.

75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements.

II. (15 points)

Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.

Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

____________THE END____________

A. LISTENING

PART I. Listen to the dialogue on the phone between and a man and a girl named Juliet and fill in the form. You are allowed to listen TWICE. Give your answers in the numbered spaces.

Name: Juliet A. Eastman

Age: (01)______________ Hair color: (02)______________ Eye color: (03)______________ Height: (04)______________ Occupation: (05)______________

Likes: going out and having fun, sports, (06)______________ and (07)______________

Wants to meet someone who : (08)______________ likes same (09)______________ and (10)______________

Part II. You are going to hear an expert talk about sleeping and dreaming. Listen and write True (T) or False (F) for each sentence. You are allowed to listen TWICE.

11. Women sleep more than men.

12. A sound sleeper moves less than a light sleeper.

13. Most people need 9 hours of sleep a night.

14. Reading in bed helps you sleep.

15. Some people don’t dream at all.

16. The average person has about four dreams a night.

17. Not everyone can remember his or her dreams.

18. Eating before bed can give you nightmares.

PART III. You are going to listen to a talk about Margaret Mead. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. You are allowed to listen TWICE.

19. What was Margaret Mead’s job?

A. a photographer B. a biologist C. an anthropologist D. a journalist

20. What was Margaret Mead’s main interest?

A. taking photographs B. exploring new places

C. how children were looked after. D. living in pour areas.

21. When did Margaret Mead go to Samoa?

A. in 1901. B. in the 1920s. C. in 1938. D. in 1978.

22. Who did she interview in her first trip to Samoa?

A. girls between 9 and 20 years old. B. boys and girls between 9 and 20 years old.

C. women over 20 years old. D. men and women over 20 years old.

23. What was the title of Margaret Mead’s book?

A. The pacific Islands. B. Teenagers around the World.

C. Growing Up in New Guinea. D. Coming of Age in Samoa.

24. What was the main reason why Margaret Mead took photos?

A. She liked photography. B. Cameras were not very common at that time.

C. Her husband liked photos. D. It was the best way to share what she learned.

25. What is the main topic of the listening passage?

A. Margaret Mead went to college in New York.

B. Margaret Mead did research on the role of culture.

C. Margaret Mead took photographs and wrote books.

D. Margaret Mead was born in Philadelphia

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences.

26. ___________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

A. What the woman was B. That the woman was

C. The woman was D. When was the woman

27. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “___________.”

A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please

C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please

28. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000___________ gave them a standing ovation.

A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences

29. My parents lent me the money. ___________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.

A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise

30. It is interesting to take___________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.

A. over B. on C. in D. up

31. Jack made me___________ him next week.

A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call

32. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” - “___________.”

A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck

33. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it___________ warmer.

A. was B. were C. has been D. had been

34. - “Eric is really upset about losing his job.” - “Well, ___________ once myself, I can understand.”

A. Having been fired B. Fired C. Having fired D. Being fired

35. ___________ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.

A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been

36. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted___________ good answer.

A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for D. came up with

37. Not only___________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused

38. The judge___________ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused B. charged C. caught D. blamed

39. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was___________ .

A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work

40. We should participate in the movement___________ to conserve the natural environment.

A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized

41. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very___________.

A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded

42. There is___________ in my bedroom.

A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table

C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table

43. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. - “___________.”

A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly

C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not.

44. One’s fingerprints are___________ other person.

A. different from B. different from any

C. differ from any D. different from those of any

45. He is very happy because he passed his exam with___________ colours.

A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing

PART V. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction then correct it.

Example: The teacher did not allow the students discussing the take-home exam with each other.

discussing → to discuss

46. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity of radiation.

47. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling sounds.

48. In spite of its small size, Europe had a great impact on world history than other continents.

49. Before she moved here , Alene has been president of the organization for four years.

50. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her parents very happy.

51. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.

52. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity.

53. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors.

54. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly appointments with our doctors.

55. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for a term paper.

PART VI. Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable prepositions.

56. I'm afraid Tom's___________ work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him?

57. Have you been to the theatre recently? ~ Yes, I was___________ the Old Vie last night.

58. At first I found the work very tiring, but___________ a few weeks I got used to it.

59. ___________ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted.

60. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to him because we were standing ___________ a queue.

61. He is always in a hurry. He drives___________ a tremendous speed.

62. Write___________ ink and put your name on the top of the page.

63. The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl___________ blue.

64. He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets___________ my nerves.

65. The children hastily changed___________ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts of delight.

PART VII. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.

The (66. SAY)__________ “never judge a book by its cover” could not be more true for Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The cover is completely blank, whereas the book is crammed full of wonderful examples and anecdotes. Allen is an (67. SPEAK)__________ critic of what is taught to native and non-native speakers of English, and has issued a (68. DECLARE)__________ of war against textbooks and style books which tell lies.

Take the ridiculous and (69. MEAN)__________ rule of never ending a sentence with a preposition. The lovely - if famous – story goes, that Winston Churchill, well-known for his numerous (70. WRITE)__________ as well as for being British Prime Minister during the Second World War, received a manuscript back from an ignorant (71. EDIT)__________, who had told him rather rudely that he had to (72. PHRASE)__________ a sentence which ended with a preposition. Churchill responded by making the simple yet forceful (73. STATE)__________ in the margin: “This is an impertinence up with which I will not put.” – the (74. IMPLY)__________ being that not to end a sentence with a preposition often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly, Allen informs us that the story is probably mere (75. HEAR)__________, and that Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the margin.

C. READING

PART VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions.

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.

The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

76. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals

C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.

77. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

A. It helps them hide from predators. C. It helps them see their young at night

B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. D. It keeps them cool at night.

78. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to__________.

A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying

79. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of__________.

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

80. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day

C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking

81. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to__________.

A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce

82. What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water

C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.

83. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly

C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food.

84. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.

85. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated

C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night

PART IX. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.

When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (86)________ across words you do not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you (88)________. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (87)________ of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.

If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth remembering that every dictionary has its (89)________. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (90)________ of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (91)________ an English-English dictionary.

In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (92)________ you are allowed to use one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (93)________, forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.

When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (94)________ a number of possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.

Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (95)________ from the formation of the word.

86. A. put B. drop C. see D. come

87. A. look B. guess C. examine D. inspect

88. A. extent B. range C. degree D. level

89. A. limitations B. values C. advantages D. entry

90. A. multiple B. variety C. variation D. diversity

91. A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire

92. A. or else B. Provided C. Although D. Even if

93. A. so B. therefore C. completely D. so that

94. A. surpass B. get over C. go over D. overcome

95. A. derived B. extracted C. coming D. originated

D. WRITING

PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.

96. This will be my student's first performance in Canada.

→ This will be the first time ………………………………………………………………

97. This course will take us six months to complete.

→ In six-month-time …………………………………………………………………………

98. The number of people who understand his ideas exceed his expectations.

→ More people ……………………………………………………………………………………

99. She'll have to make her presentation at the end of his speech.

→ The moment he ………………………………………………………………………………

100. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time.

→ Once ………………………………………………………………………………………………

101. Both Mary and Peter prefer jazz to classical music.

→ Neither…………………………………………………………………………………………

102. They repaired my car at the garage in town.

→ I.........................................................................................................................................

103. This is the last time I will speak to you.

→ I........................................................................................................................................

104. I prefer staying in to going out.

→ I'd rather.....................................................................................................................

105. They passed the driving test because of the easy questions.

→ If …………………………………………………………………………………………………

PART XI. ESSAY WRITING

Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones have caused many problems to people.

What is your opinion?

In about 250 words, write an essay to assert your point of view on this problem.

_________THE END_________

ĐÁP ÁN

LISTENING – 2,5 ĐIỂM

PART I: 1,0 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

01. twenty-three/23 02. blonde / blond 03. blue 04. average 05. computer programmer

06. music 07. (watching ) TV 08. outgoing 09. music/ sports 10. sports/ music

PART II: 0,8 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

11. F 12. F 13. F 14. T 15. F 16. T 17. T 18. F

PART III: 0,7 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. B

LEXICO – GRAMMAR – 3 ĐIỂM

PART IV: 1 điểm = 0,05/ 1 câu đúng

26. A 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35.A

36. D 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. A

PART V: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

46. is used → used 47. their path → its path

48. great impact → greater impact 49. has been → had been

50. make → makes/made 51. composes not only → not only composes

52. rarely we stop → rarely do we stop 53. have difficulty → have had difficulty

54. do yearly → make yearly 55. such difficult → so difficult

PART VI: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng

56. at 57. at 58. for 59. in 60. in 61. at 62. in 63. in 64. on 65. into

PART VII: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng

66. saying 67. outspoken 68. declaration 69. meaningless 70. writings

71. editor 72. rephrase 73. statement 74. implication 75. hearsay

READING – 2 ĐIỂM

PART VIII: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

76. B 77. B 78. C 79. C 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. D

PART IX: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

86. D 87. B 88. C 89. C 90. B 91. B 92. D 93. B 94. D 95. A

WRITING – 2,5 ĐIỂM

PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng)

96. This will be the first time my students have performed in Canada. (my student has given the performance in Canada.)

97. In six- month-time we will have completed this course.

98. More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects.

99. The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation.

100. Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time.

101. Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz.

102. I had my car repaired at the garage in town.

103. I will not/never speak to you (again).

104. I'd rather stay in than go out.

105. If -the questions hadn’t been easy, /- the questions had been (more) difficult,/- If it hadn’t been for the easy questions, they wouldn’t have passed the driving test/ they would have failed the driving test.

PART XI. ESSAY WRITING (1,5 điểm)

_________THE END__________

Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.

1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.

A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted

1. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.

A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum

1. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car

A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned

1. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.

A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down

1. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and buildings.

A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring

1. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.

A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy

1. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.

A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy

1. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.

A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve

1. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.

A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out

1. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.

A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First

1. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the employers.

A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse

1. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.

A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified

1. His illness made him_________ of concentration.

A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless

1. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?

A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted

1. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.

A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having

1. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?

A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish

1. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?

A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair

C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut

1. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.

A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came

1. I_____________ saying what I think.

A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when

1. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.

A. could stop B. could have stopped

C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop

Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a (1.thunder)….. Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop)………all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4. pleasant)………...to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.

The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain (6. beat)…….against the windows.

Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead) ………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.

Section B: Reading

Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Fill each numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below.

The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)………… about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the world, but they are most common in warm seas.

Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.

All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.

1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange

2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over

3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary

4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly

5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand

6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks

7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate

8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear

9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive

10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed

Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.

Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been (1)…………

A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is necessary for good (5)…………

Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.

Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.

Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C or D.

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350
C. before 1600 D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT .....................................
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million
C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use:

BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME

Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide business.

At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.

(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand years ago.

The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17^th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.

The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17^th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.

(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.

The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (7)____.

At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.

It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.

At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your next chocolate bars.

A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.

B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.

C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.

D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water.

E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.

F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.

G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden elsewhere.

H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.

I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.

J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors.

K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.

Section C: Writing

Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the word in capital letters which must not be altered in any way :

1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)

→………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)

→………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)

→………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)

→………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)

→………………………………………………………………………………………….

Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:

How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer.

ĐÁP ÁN

Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)

Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational

2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as

3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume

4. and → to 9. certainly → certain

5. but → to 10. intention → intended

Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. thunderstorm 2. raincoat 3. shopping 4. pleasure 5. deserted

6. beating 7. disturbance 8. entrance 9. led 10. slightest

Section B: Reading (35 điểm)
Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D

Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)

Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C

Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)

1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H

Section C: Writing (25 điểm)

Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)

1. You should take the price into consi…..

2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……..

3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.

4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM will call a…….

5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted……..

Part III (10 điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:

• Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử của con người, cả về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực
• Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn
• Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý)
• Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ…..) thì không trừ điểm

Part A: LISTENING. (2 points)

Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer.

Women hold up half the sky. This is an old (1)………………….. However, research shows that perhaps women do more their share of “holding up the sky”.

Fifty percent of the (2)……………… are women, but in nearly two-thirds of all working hours are done by women. They do most of the domestic work like cooking, and washing clothes. Millions also work outside the home. Women hold (3)……………. of the world^’s job. For this work, they earn only 40 to 60 percent as much as men, and of course they earn nothing for their (4)……………….

In developing countries, where (5)………………… of the world^’s population live, women produce more than half of the food. In Africa, 80 percent of all (6)…………….. work is done by women.

In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4.45 am she gets up, washes, and eats. It takes her half an hour to walk to (7)………………….., and she works there until 3.00 o^’clock pm. She collects (8)………………. until 4.00 pm then comes back home. She spends the next hour and half (9)………….. to cook. Then she (10)………….. for another hour. From 6.30 to 8.30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes. She goes to bed at 9.30 pm.

Part B: PHONETICS (1p)

I: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group.

II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.

Part C. Vocabulary

I. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p)

Football is one of the world’s most (1)……………… sports. People have played the game for hundred of years ago and almost every country has a national football (2)…………….. A football match consists of two teams with eleven players on each side. Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the game. When the refree blows his (3)……………, the game begins.

The team that scored the most goals by the end of the match is the (4)……………. . If no team has scored a goal, the match is called a draw. The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the goalposts and tries to stop people (5)……………… goals. He is only the player who can touch the ball with his hands. The ball is not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch. If it does, the game stops for a short time.

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p)

1. National teams must compete in ……..games in their regions before being able to play in the finals.

2. Many fruit trees, like the banana, the mango, the coconut grow very well in ……… climate

3. A television ……………..show is a program in which competition try to answers questions to test their

knowledge.

4. The ………..of the jealous husband was played by Paul Newsman

5. The football team won because they had been so well trained by their ……………

Part D: GRAMMAR

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps)

1. “Why did you buy so much paint?”

“I……………….the doors and windows again.”

2. The explorer …………….his lunch when the cannibals suddenly came.

3. This morning I bought_____book._____book is about butterflies.

4. I…………………..you if you had told me about your problem.

5. My father is working hard_____money for our new house.

6. Before taking another degree in mathematics, Marie Curie……..a physics degree.

7. “Did you remember to book the seats?”

“Oh, no, I forgot. I …………………..for them now.

8. When I was young, everyone in the family ….... gather together at home for Christmas.

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1p)

1. Most of the ……………………….in the area was caused by the factories.

2. A computer can do complicated calculations with lightning speed and …..……………..

3. What should we do to reduce the level of………….…..?

4. “ I failed my driving test again!” – “……………………..”

5. The salary of a doctor is much higher …………...

III. Which sentence expresses the same idea as the given one.(1,4ps)

1. “ You shouldn^’t get up until you feel better,” the doctor said to me

2. I rang the door bell, But nobody answer.

3. We could not go out because the weather was so bad.

4. People think that an apple a day is good for you.

5. He cycles to work in order to get some exercise.

6. He got over his illness in three months.

7. The train driver^’s strike made it hard for us to get to work

IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in brackets.(1p)

1. They were given ……………..to build the supermarket in spite of opposition from local residents.

(permit)

2. Their living-room is …………………….decorated. (attract)

3. Sperm whales are among the ……species, which should be protected by law. (danger)

4. The fans were disappointed with the team^’s early….from the competition. (eliminate)

5. The Italians is said to be the most ……………….people in Europe.(passion)

Part E: READING

I. Fill in each gap with one suitable word from the box.(2 ps)

The (1)……………of the earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power stations. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it forms a kind of (2)…………….that keeps or rather allows the sunshine in but stop the earth’s heat (3)……… getting out. It works like a greenhouse: that is why we call (4)…………….…. the Greenhouse Effect.

Because of this effect, the earth is getting warmer all the time. This (5)……..…. in temperature will cause big changes to the world^’s climate. The sea level will rise, the ice (6)…………….the poles will melt and cause the sea level to rise.

The second problem is the (7)……………..of the ozone layer. Certain chemicals float up to the sky and react with the zone layer, and they make holes in it. Because of these holes the ultraviolet rays can.

Shine directly to the earth. Many people are now starting to (8)…………from skin cancer. The sulfurous smoke from factories and power station mixes with rain clouds and gets blown by.

The wind and then falls as acid rain (9)…………….destroys lakes and forests.

These three problems threaten our environment at the end of the twentieth century. (10)…….…..… we do something about them quickly, we, human race, may disappear from the face of the earth.

II. Read the passage and answer the questions

There are many sources of pollution in our modern world. At present, the most serious sources are acid rain, car exhaust fumes and oil spills.

Factory chimneys give out smoke that contains sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide. These gases combine with the moisture in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid with nitric acid. When it rains, these acids dissolve in the rain and make it acidic. Acid rain is believed to be the worst pollution problem of all. It has harmed aquatic life by turning many lakes into lifeless bodies of water. In these areas, there is no limestone in the rock to neutralize the acid rain naturally. One remedy is to pump limestone into the acidic lakes. However, it is not possible to do this on a large enough scale to save all the lakes.

Car exhaust fumes contain carbon monoxide and lead which are highly poisonous. In big cities, exhaust fumes build up and pose a heath hazard to human beings.

Pollution of the sea by soil threatens marine life. Much of the oil comes from ships that clean their fuel tanks while at area. Offshore oil wells also discharge vast amounts of oil into the sea. Pollution of the sea can also be caused by oil spills. An oil spill may occur as a result of accidents involving oil tankers.

1. What are the most serious sources of pollution?

2. Why is smoke from factory chimneys harmful to our environment?

3. What does “this” in (However, it is not possible to do ) mean?

4. what do car exhaust fumes contain?

5. What sources cause pollution of the sea?

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(2 ps)

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest subsistence strategy, and has been practiced for at least two million years. It was , indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.

Because hunter-gathers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments such as deserts forest or arctic wasteland. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater independence on hunting, and along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gathers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gathers in both Africa and Alaska that society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice a seasonal migration on pattern evolving for most hunter gathers, along with a restrict division of labor between sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.

1. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?

A. The Paleolithic period B. Subsistence farming

C. Hunter-gatherers D. Marginal environment

2. Which is the oldest subsistence strategy?

A. Migrating B. Domesticating animals

C. Farming D. Hunting and gathering

3. The Word “rudimentary” is closet in meaning to ……………. .

A. Rough B. preliminary C. ancient D. backward

4. The phrase “in short” can be replaced by ……………….. .

A. In demand B. in want C. shortly D. to cut a long story short

5. The word “abundance” is closet in meaning to ……………… .

A. plenty B. amount C. density D. majority

6. The word “mobile” in the passage can be replaced by …………….. .

A. transportable B. carried C. movable D. portable

7. When was hunting and gathering introduced?

A. 1,000,000 years ago B. 2,000,000 years ago

C. 10,000 years ago D. 2,000 years ago

8. What conditions exits in the lower latitude?

A. Greater dependence on hunting B. More coast and waterways for fishing

C. A shorter growing season D. A large variety of plant life

9. How can we know more about the hunter-gathers of prehistoric time?

A. By studying the remains of their camp sites

B. By studying similar contemporary societies

C. By studying the prehistoric environment

D. By practicing hunting and gathering

10. Which of the following is not mentioned in the above passage?

A. More and more people in the modern time live on the food they gather in the natural environment

around their homes.

B. The more vegetable in the lower latitude in the tropics there is, the greater opportunity for gathering

plants there are

C. Because of the shorter growing season in higher latitude, the availability of plants is limited.

D. The environmental differences result in restricted diet.

Part F: WRITING

I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the space provided.(1p)

1. I have always wanted to visit Paris, that is the capital of France.

A B C D

2. If Betty would driven more carefully, she would not have had that accident

A B C D

3. His family was happy when they heard of him winning the race

A B C D

4. I^’m sure Amy will lend you the money, I^’d be very surprised if she will refuse.

A B C D

5. That shirt you saw in the window almost cost twenty dollars.

A B C D

II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (1p)

1. It was such bad news that Helen burst into tears

The news……………………………………………………….………………………………………..

2. There are more people out of work in this city than ever before.

Never………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Although Judy was severely disabled, she participated in many sports.

Despite her…………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Thank you for reminding me about this meeting - otherwise I would have missed it.

If you……………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Jenny^’s salary as an accountant is two thousand dollars a month.

Jenny makes…………………………………………………………………………………………..

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.(1p)

1. Is it all right if you take care of the children? (mind)

Do……………………………………………………………………………………………………….?

2. It is reported that a train has crashed in Berlin. (have)

A train …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Laura^’s father did not allow her to see Jake. (prevented)

Laura^’s father……………………………………………………………………….…………………….

4. If you run every day, your breathing improves quickly.(running)

Daily……………………………………………………………………….…………………………………

5. Tina^’s car stopped working on the way to Scotland. (down)

Tina^’s car…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

III. Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about a film you have seen.(2s)

Outline of a film report

-Title of the film

-General introduction: + Where did you see the film? Where? Who with? Why did you choose that film

particular film? What type of film is it?

+ Where the film was set? What is it about? Who are the main characters and

what happens to them?....................

-Conclusion: Does the film have a happy or sad ending? Your feeling or impression about the film.

ĐÁP ÁN

Part A: LISTENING. (2 points)

Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer.

Part B: PHONETICS (1p)

I: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group.

II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.

Part C. Vocabulary

1. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p)

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p)

Part D: GRAMMAR

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps)

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1p)

III. Which sentence expresses the same idea as the given one.(1,4ps)

IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in brackets.(1p)

Part E: READING

I. Fill in each gap with one suitable word from the box.(2 ps)

II. Read the passage and answer the questions

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(2 ps)

Part F: WRITING

I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the space provided.(1p)

II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (1p)

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.(1p)

IV. Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about a film you have seen.(2s)

Outline of a film report

-Title of the film

-General introduction: + Where did you see the film? Where? Who with? Why did you choose that film

particular film? What type of film is it?

+ Where the film was set? What is it about? Who are the main characters and

what happens to them?....................

-Conclusion: Does the film have a happy or sad ending? Your feeling or impression about the film.

Marking scheme

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 1p of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 0,6p of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 0,4p of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

\

section a: Phonetics (10 points)

I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)

1. A. opponent B. compose C. podium D. advocate

2. A. reserve B. domestic C. optimistic D. nursery

3. A. both B. cloth C. ghost D. sold

4. A. examine B. determine C. famine D. dine

5. A. sacred B. decided C. contaminated D. watered

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)

1. A. counterpart B. precede C. nursery D. compliment

2. A. bewilder B. audience C. benefit D. dedicate

3. A. pessimistic B. university C. epidemic D. particular

4. A. tsunami B. terrorist C. involvement D. disaster

5. A. processor B. windsurfing C. semester D. challenger

section B: Grammar & Vocabulary (40 points)

I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)

1. According to the boss, John is the most ­______ for the position of executive secretary.

A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable

2. The children went _______ with excitement.

A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife

3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.

A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed

4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.

A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe

5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.

A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing

6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.

A. in B. for C. of D. out

7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.

A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make

8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.

A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch

9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.

A. design B. progress C. construction D. work

10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”

A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in

C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem

II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)

III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)

IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)

1. Although to some people reading is a favourite way to spend time, but others just do not like reading. A B C D

2. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced disease can have severely effects on that species.

A B C D

3. I believe that only very self-confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of eye contact time. A B C D

4. It is likely that all people in Hanoi live in skyscrapers by 2050.

A B C D

5. In 1961, America’s first manned spacecraft launched.

A B C D

6. Do you really think that candidate is qualify to be President?

A B C D

7. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.

A B C D

8. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure. A B C D

9. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was a three-hours journey.

A B C D

10. Married women are twice so likely as married men to be depressed.

A B C D

section C: reading (30 points)

I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)

Kim Jong-il (16^th February 1941 ^– 17^th December 2011) was the supreme leader of North Korea (1)_________1994 to 2011.

Kim Jong-il died (2)_________a suspected heart (3)_________on 17^th December 2011 while traveling by train to an area outside Pyongyang. He was succeeded by his youngest son Kim Jong-un, (4)_________was considered by the Korean Central News Agency (5)_________ the "Great Successor". The Korean Central News Agency reported that during his death, a fierce snowstorm paused and the sky glowed red above the sacred Mount Paektu. The ice on a famous lake also cracked so loud, it seemed to shake the Heavens and the Earth.

Kim Jong-il's funeral took (6)_________on December 28^th in Pyongyang, with a mourning period lasting until the (7)_________ day. South Korea's military was immediately put on alert after the announcement. Asian stock markets fell soon after the announcement, due to similar concerns.

(8)_________ January 12^th, 2012 North Korea called Kim Jong-il the "eternal leader" and announced that his (9)_________ will be preserved and displayed at Pyongyang's Kumsusan Memorial Palace. Officials will also install statues, portraits, and "towers to his immortality" across the country. His (10)_________of February 16^th has been declared "the greatest auspicious holiday of the nation", and has been named the Day of the Shining Star.

II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (15pts)

Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ______ to be successful? Having someone around who always (2) ______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ______ – we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, ‘It looks (4) ______ rain.’ But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) ______ it.

You can change your view of life, (6) ______ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you will find life more rewarding as a (7) ______. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) ______. Optimists are more (9) ______ to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks.

Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ______ to the world. Some people are brought up to (11) ______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) ______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) ______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ______ failure as the end of the world- they just (15) ______ with their lives.

1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited

2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts

3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun

4. A. so B. to C. for D. like

5. A. with B. against C. about D. over

6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following

7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product

8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose

9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome

10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position

11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope

12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns

13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far

14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think

15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over

III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts)

In the second half of each year, many powerful storms are born in the tropical Atlantic and Caribbean seas. Of these, only about half a dozen become the strong, circling winds of 74 miles per hour or more that are called hurricanes, and several usually make their way to the coast. There they cause millions of dollars of damage, and bring death to large numbers of people.

The great storms that hit the coast start as soft circling wind hundreds - even thousands - of miles out to sea. As they travel aimlessly over water warmed by the summer sun, they are carried westward by the southeast winds. When conditions are just right, warm moist air flows in at the bottom of such a wind, moves upward through it and comes out at the top. In the process, the moisture in this warm air produces rain, and with it, the heat is changed to energy in the form of strong winds. As the heat increases, the young hurricane begins to move counter clockwise motion.

The life of a hurricane is only about nine days, but it contains almost more power than we can imagine. The energy in the heat released by a hurricane’s rainfall in a single day would satisfy the entire electrical needs of the United States for more than six months. Water, not wind, is the main source of death and destruction in a hurricane. A typical hurricane brings 6 to 12 inches downpour, causing sudden floods. Worst of all is the powerful movement of the sea – the mountains of water moving toward the hurricane center. The water level rises as much as 15 feet above normal as it moves toward shore.

1. When is an ordinary tropical storm called a hurricane?

A. When it begins in the Atlantic and Caribbean seas. B. When its winds reach 74 miles per hour.

C. When it is more than 74 miles wide. D. When it hits the Coastline.

2. What is the worst thing about hurricanes?

A. The terrible effects of water. B. The heat they give off.

C. That they last about nine days. D. Their strong winds.

3. Here the underlined word “downpour” means______.

A. heavy rainfall B. dangerous waves

C. the progress of water to the hurricane center D. the increasing heat

4. Which of the following statements about a hurricane is NOT true?

A. It travels more than 75 miles per hour. B. It usually stays about nine days.

C. It usually causes 6 to 12 inches downpour.

D. It sometimes brings the sea water level to the height of 15 feet.

5. Hurricanes often cause ______?

A. a lot of damage B. sudden floods

C. death to large numbers of people D. All are correct

section D: writing (20 points)

I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)

1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.

⇨ Only_________________________________________________________________.

2. House prices have risen sharply this year.

⇨ There has_________________________________________________________________.

3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.

⇨ Had it not_________________________________________________________________.

4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?

⇨ I’d_________________________________________________________________.

5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.

⇨ He broke_________________________________________________________________.

6. I write to him almost every day.

⇨ Hardly_________________________________________________________________.

7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.

⇨ All dogs are_________________________________________________________________.

8. Don’t go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.

⇨ Make sure you finish_________________________________________________________________.

9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.

⇨ The annual_________________________________________________________________.

10. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.

⇨ Henry wishes_________________________________________________________________.

II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)

1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON

⇨ The two theories _____________________________________________________.

2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT

⇨ I can’t/ won’t ________________________________________________________.

3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY

⇨ I have _________________________________________________________________.

4. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. NEITHER

⇨ He has _________________________________________________________________.

5. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO

⇨ A quiet _________________________________________________________________.

III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)

1. Mother/ take/ responsibility/ run/ household.

⇨_________________________________________________________________.

2. ASEAN / have/ population/ 575.5 million/ account/ 8.7 %/ the world’s population.

⇨_________________________________________________________________.

3. It/ not/ until/ Einstein/ eight/ he/ can/ speak.

⇨_________________________________________________________________.

4. Defensive players / not/ allow/ interfere/ opponent’s movements/ unless/ player/ hold/ ball. ⇨_________________________________________________________________.

5. Never/ stop/ try/ you/ get/ right solution/ problem.

⇨_________________________________________________________________.

________THE END_______

ĐÁP ÁN

section a: Phonetics (10 points)

1 point/correct answer.

section B: Grammar & Vocabulary (40 points)

1 point/correct answer.

section C: READing (30 points)

1 point/correct answer.

section D: writing (20 points)

_________THE END_________

A. PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.

1. __________ scientists have observed increased pollution in the water supply.

2. You will have to __________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.

3. It is recommended that he __________this course.

4. Various societies define __________ in many rather complex ways.

5. Don't set off fireworks too closely to your house, __________?.

6. He was the first person __________ the fire.

7. John: "I didn't pass my driving test".

Anna: "__________"

8. Our friends have lived in Paris __________ 2002.

9. The government stopped the local companies from importing fake milk powder__________ of public health.

10. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, __________was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.

11. One problem for teacher is that each student has his/her own __________ needs.

12. I knew my father would discipline me for my bad behaviour.

13. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.

14. __________ broken into while we were away on holiday.

15. __________ to the national park before, she was amazed to see the geyser

16. Nursing, teaching and engineering are __________.

17. I've looked __________ my book everywhere but I can't find it.

18. Joe has three sisters. He wishes he __________ a brother.

19. He asked me __________.

20. __________ is extremely dangerous.

II. Error identification:

1. It was not until the match ended that everybody had left the stadium.

2. The plants in their garden looks unhealthy because they haven't had enough sunlight.

3. I'm having a day off today so I decide to take the car to the garage to have it repair.

4. The astronauts didn't walk far on the Moon if they were hampered by the thick dust.

5. Some animals need more highlier developed sense cells than man to survive in their struggle for existence.

C. READING

I. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D, best fits each space.

THE HISTORY OF FILM

The world first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Auguste Lumiere. Although it only __________(1) of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have __________(2) popular ever since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to __________(3) the story.

Soon the public had __________(4) favourite actors and actresses and, in this __________(5) the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie”, a film with sound, was shown and from then on, the public __________(6) only accept this kind of film.

Further improvements continued, particularly in American, __________(7) produced 95% of all films. With the arrival of television in the 1950s, __________(8) people went to see films, but in __________(9) years cinema audiences have grown again. More countries have started to produce films that influence film-making and there are currently __________(10) national film industries.

II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each question.

Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage a navy seaman.

With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, in one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.

1. The main subject of the passage is __________

A. Melville's travels

B. The popularity of Melville's novels

C. Melville's personal background

D. Moby Dick

2. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were__________

A. published while he was travelling

B. completely fictional

C. all about his work on whaling ships

D. based on his travels

3. In what year did Melville's book about his experience as a cabin boy appear

A. 1837 B. 1841 C. 1847 D. 1849

4. The word "basis" in line 5 is closest in meaning to__________

A. foundation B. message C. bottom D. theme

5. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because __________

A. He had unofficially left his ship

B. He was on leave while his ship was in port

C. He had finished his term of duty

D. He had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti

6. A "frigate" in line 9 is probably __________

A. an office B. a ship C. a troop D. a train

7. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?

A. His popularity increased immediately

B. It had no effect on his popularity

C. It caused his popularity to decrease

D. His popularity remained as strong as ever

8. According to the passage, Moby Dick is__________

A. a romantic novel

B. a single-faceted work

C. a short story about a whale

D. a symbolic of humanity fighting the environment

9. The word "metamorphosis" in line 16 is closet in meaning to__________

A. circle B. change C. mysticism D. descent

10. The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on__________

A. nineteenth-century novels

B. American history

C. oceanography

D. modern American literature

D. WRITING:

I. Give the correct form of the following verbs:

1. When I _(1)_________(look) at my suitcase, I could see that somebody _(2)_________(try) to open it.

2. The man at the corner table __(3)________(glance) my way to seed if I __(4)________(listen)

3. It is recommended that he __(5)________(take) a gallon of water with him if he hikes to the bottom of the Grand Canyon.

4. While he __(6)________(learn) to drive he _(7)_________(have) twenty five accidents.

5. He wore the sunglasses __(8)________(avoid) _(9)_________(recognize)

6. That proposal__(10)________(consider) by the members right now.

II. Fill in each blank with a suitable word.

In these days of high unemployment, it is often difficult (1) __________young people to find a job. If they are lucky (2) __________to be asked to go for an interview, they may find (3) __________there are at least twenty other applicants for the (4) __________. IF a company is thinking of offering (5)__________a job, they will ask you for at least one reference from either your previous employer (6) __________someone who know you well. (7) __________taking up your job, you may have to sign a contract. You will probably have to do some training, (8) __________helps you to do the job more successfully. Once you have to decide that this is your chosen career, you will then have to work (9) __________ to try and get promotion, which usually brings more responsibility and money! If you are unlucky, you may be made redundant and not be able to find (10) __________job. It is also a good idea to pay some money into a pension scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family when you are retired. Finally, good luck.

III. Give the correct form of the words

1. I try not to remember this (1) __________experience that only leaves me with unhappy thoughts. (fright)

2. Films festivals are (2) __________ divided into categories like drama, documentary or animation (typical)

3. A lot of toys encourage children’s (3) __________(imagine)

4. She has one of the biggest art (4) __________in Britain. (collect)

5. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of (5) __________(pollute)

6. Don’t worry. I’ll be waiting for you at the (6) __________ to the pagoda. (enter)

7. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and (7) __________(modern)

8. (8) __________are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforests are being destroyed. (conserve)

9. The athletes take part in the World Cup tournament in the true spirit of (9) __________ (sport)

10. He doesn’t want to stay behind his father’s (10) __________ (famous)

VI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given and other words to complete each sentence.

1. He got down writing a letter as soon as he returned from his work.

→ No sooner

2. What a pity they closed the shop at lunch time.

→ I wish

3. Please don’t ask me that question.

→ I’d rather

4. We didn’t find out about the meeting until he phoned us.

→ It was not

5. David went home before I arrived.

→ When I arrived,

6. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.

→ Only when

7. We didn’t have managed without my father’s money

→ If it

8. No one has tidied this room for 3 months.

→ This

9. Although Judy was severely disabled, she participated in many sports..

→ Despite

10. This will be the orchestra’s first performance outside London.

→ This will be the first time

V. Using the prompts provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter:

Dear Sir/Madam,

1. I/ like/ express/ concern/ increasing/ number/ Karaoke bars/ city.

2. There/ be/ lot/ reasons/ I/ object/ places.

3. Firstly/ owners/ take/ much money/ those/ come/ sing.

4. Secondly, they/ cause/ much noise/ neighborhood.

5. Thirdly, there/ number/ pupils/ play truant/just/go/those/places/sing.

6. Last/ least/ these bars/ do harm/ appearance/ city/ because/their/ ugly flashing lights.

7. I/ want/ say/ I/ not/ old fashioned/ person.

8. I/ hope/ authority/ take/ matter/ careful consideration.

9. I/ not mean/ ban/ them/ but/ there/should/ effective way control/ this kind/ entertainment places.

10. I/ look/ see/ city council/ do/ this matter.

Yours truly,

Thomas Cruise.

THE END

ĐÁP ÁN

Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

A. PHONETICS (2 pts) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. (4 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2điểm:

II: (1 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

C. READING

I: (2 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

II: (2 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

D. WRITING

I: Verb-form (1 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,1 điểm:

II. Filling in the gaps: (2 pts) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

III. Word-form: (2 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

IV. Rewriting the sentences: (2pts) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. → No sooner had he returned from his work than he got down writing a letter.

2. → I wish they hadn’t closed the shop at lunch time.

3. → I’d rather you didn’t ask me that question.

4. → It was not until he phoned us that we found out about the meeting.

5. → When I arrived, David had gone home.

6. → Only when their second child was born did Alice and Charles decided to move to a bigger house.

7. → If it hadn’t been for my father’s money, we wouldn’t have managed.

8. → This room hasn’t tidied for 3 months.

9. → Despite being severely disabled/her severe disability, Judy participated in many sports.

10. → This will be the first time the orchestra played/performed outside London.

V. Using the prompts to write full sentences: (2pts) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. I would like to express my concern about the increasing number of Karaoke bars in the city.
2. There are a lot of reasons that (why) I object to these/those places.
3. Firstly, the owners take too much money from those who come to sing.
4. Secondly, they cause/are causing too much noise in the neighborhood.
5. Thirdly, there are a number of pupils who play truant just to go to those places to sing.
6. Last but not least, these bars do harm to the appearance of the city because of their ugly flashing lights.
7. I want to say I am not an old fashioned person.
8. I hope the authority will take this matter into careful consideration.
9. I do not mean to ban them but there should be an effective way to control this kind of entertainment places.
10. I am looking forward to seeing the city council doing this matter.

Part A: Pronunciation

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in the same group (circle your choice). (0.6 point)

1. A. parachute B. champagne C. chivalry D. churchgoer

2. A. inflexible B. elegant C. experiment D. recollection

3. A. breakfast B. already C. feasible D. heather

II. Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others. (0.4 point)

1. A. contaminate B. population C. biology D. environment

2. A. tournament B. organism C. postpone D. interested

Part B: Vocabulary

I. Find a suitable word to fill in each blank in the sentences. (1 point)

1. There are …………………. kinds of animals in the forest.

2. He is a farmer who ……………. horses.

3. A …………..devotes his whole life to looking after the forest.

4. The earthquake had a lot of …………………… on the infrastructure.

5. Can we see ………………….. the earth is a globe?.

II. Choose the best word to complete each of the following sentences. (1 point)

1. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”

Mary: “_________”

A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.

C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.

2. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!” Mr John: “_________”

A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.

C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.

3. You have never been to Italy, ________?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you

4. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.

A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality

5. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”

A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure

Part C: Grammar

I. Lexico-grammar.

Choose the correct form of the verbs to complete the sentences. (2p)

1. My friend, Mary, arrived after I ________ for her about half an hour.

A. was waiting B. had been waiting C. have been waiting D. have waited

2. My daughter saw an elephant this morning, but she ________ one before.

A. had never seen B. has never seen C. never sees D. never had seen

3. You ………….her, because she didn’t say that.

A. must misunderstand B. must have misunderstood

C. must be misunderstanding D. had to misunderstand

4. As a famous person _____ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.

A. whose B. whom C. which D. when

5. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.

A. with B. to C. by D. for

6. Mary's children are used to ______ after school every day. They don't have to walk home.

A. picking up B. being picked up C. be picked up D. pick up

7. The doctor advised me ________late.

A. not staying up B. not stay up C. not to stay up D. did not stay up

8. Linda was the last student________ at the oral exam.

A. to be asked B. asking C. asks D. to ask

9. Jane's summer vacation in England led to ________ an Englishman.

A. her marry B. her to marry C. her being married D. her marrying

10. The publishers expect that the new biography of Simon Bolivar will be bought by people ________ in Latin American history.

A. who they are interested B. interested C. are interested D. they are interested

Choose the correct word to complete each of the sentences. (1.2 points)

1. Last year, Peter earned …………………………… his brother.

A. twice as much as B. twice as many as C. twice more than D. twice as more as

2. After the terrible traffic accident, ____ injured were taken to ______ hospital immediately.

A. a/ the B. the/ Ø C. an/ the D. the/the

3. The news of Julia’s engagement caused great ________.

A. excite B. excited C. exciting D. excitement

4The new office block …………… well with its surroundings.

A. bends in B. stands out C. shapes up D. sets off

5. Are your plans for this weekend still ………………..?

A. the same B. same C. like D. alike

6. Floria, …………… as the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.

A. being known B. that is known C. known D. is known

II. Sentence Structures.

Choose the correct options among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as or best suited to complete the given one. (2 points)

1. If I knew his telephone number, I would phone him.

A. I didn’t know his telephone number, so I couldn’t phone him.

B. Because I don’t know his telephone number, I can’t phone him.

C. I don’t know his telephone number. That why I can’t phone him.

D. I knew his telephone number, and I could phone him.

2. The building has been designed by a famous architect.

A. A famous architect designed the building.

B. A famous architect has been designed the building

C. A famous architect has designed the building.

D. A famous architect was designed the building.

3. “ I think smoking in restaurants should be banned,” he says.

A. He doesn’t think smoking in restaurants is permitted.

B. He doesn’t like smoking in restaurants.

C. He advised everybody not to smoke in restaurants.

D. He thinks the government should ban smoking in restaurants.

4. The picnic was cancelled because it rained.

A.If it didn’t rain, the picnic wouldn’t be cancelled.

B. If it hadn’t rained, the picnic wouldn’t have been cancelled.

C.If it didn’t rain, the picnic wouldn’t have been cancelled.

D.If it hadn’t rained, the picnic wouldn’t be cancelled

5. It’s ages since I last saw you.

A. I haven’t seen you for a long time. B.I didn’t see you since ages.

C. I haven’t seen you since a long time. D. I didn’t see you for ages.

6. Both Jane and her sister speak Vietnamese fluently.

A. Jane speaks Vietnamese more fluently than her sister does.

B. Jane doesn’t speak Vietnamese as fluently as her sister.

C. Jane speaks Vietnamese fluently but her sister doesn’t.

D. Jane speaks Vietnamese fluently and so does her sister.

7. He left a message so that I could know where to find him.

A. He left a message, which I knew where to find.

B. I could know where to find him, so he left a message.

C. He left a message, because I knew where to find him.

D. I could know where to find him thanks to the message he left.

8. This is the first time I've made such a stupid mistake.

A. The first mistake I made was a stupid one.

B. I had never made a stupid mistake.

C. Never before have I made such a stupid mistake.

D. I first made a stupid mistake.

9. Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.

A. Sam not only speaks Chinese Well but also is good at Japanese.

B. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.

C. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.

D. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.

10. I regret giving Dennis my phone number.

A. I should given Dennis my phone number.

B. If only I had given Dennis my phone number.

C. If only I had not given Dennis my phone number.

D. I wish I could give Dennis my phone number

III. Word Formation.

Write the correct form of the words in parentheses in the blanks (1 point).

1. She’s extremely …………….(KNOWLEDE) about modern art.

2. There was a ____________ (WIDE) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.

3. Her health has ____________ (BAD) considerably since we last saw her.

4. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS,

heart diseases and other ____________ (SICK).

5. He was ____________ (INFORMATION) of the consequences in advance.

Part D: Reading Comprehension

I. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.(2 points)

Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As

(1)________as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (2)_______ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 3)_______ provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (4) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (5)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.

Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (6) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (7) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (8) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (9) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (10) ______ books that are often out-of date, irrelevant, or damaged.

1. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly

2. A. though B. with C. during D. when

3. A. that B. who C. which D. this

4. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Otherwise

5. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum

6. A. go B. come C. rely D. stay

7. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial

8. A. for B. with C. on D. by

9. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict

10. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain

II. Read the following passage and write the answers for the questions. (1 point)

According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen before take off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten you seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the realize mechanism of your belt operates. During takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and a alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary.

In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until your plane comes to complete stop. If smoke is present in the carbin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slices before they are in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.

1.What is the main topic of the passage?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. According to experts, when are travelers urged to read and listen to safety instructions?

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Which exits should an airline passenger locate before takeoff?

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Find out a word which is synonym with the word “evacuate” in the passage.

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discus?

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

III.Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions.(2p)

As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18^th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus – from the Dutch Sinter Klas – was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.

Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19^th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19^th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.

1. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?

A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers

1. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a

A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man

C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse

1. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as

A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter

B. a good old man with less religious character

C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas

D. a jolly man on horseback

1. Who was Black Peter?

A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas B. an elf who rode a white horse

C. one of the disobedient children D. a popular traditional figure

1. What word is closest in meaning to attributes?

A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance

1. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?

A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York

1. 1823 was mentioned as a year when

A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem

B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular

C. Saint Nicholas visited New York

D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed

1. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem

A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one

B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly

C. Santa Claus liked poetry

D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh

1. The answer Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus is an illustration for the fact that

A. the New York Sun was popular with children

B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time

C. newspapers are unreliable

D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun

1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures

B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas

C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America

D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter

Part E: Writing

I. Identify the errors in the following sentences. (1 point)

1. How did you manage getting here so quickly?

A. How B. did C. getting D. so

2. Ms Baker , she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of worker, is an successful woman in the world.
A. she B. her life C. welfare D. the

3. Because of the Lewis and Clark Expedition in 1972, the United States begin to realize the true value of the Louisiana territory.

A. Because B. begin C. the true value D. territory

4. I remember to be given a toy drum on my fifth birthday.

A. remember B. to be C. on D. fifth

5. You can lead a horse to water but you can't make him drinking.

A. lead B. but C. make D. drinking

II. Sentence Transformation.

Rewrite the following sentences with the words provided so that the meaning of each sentence remains unchanged. (1 point)

1.Andrew is the most generous person I have ever met.

I’ve yet……………………………………………………………………………

2. Far more people live to retirement age in Britain than in Philippines.

Not……………………………………………………………………………….

3. His father is going to fix the ball for him tomorrow.

He is going …………………………………………………………………………

4. She never seems to succeed even though she studies much.

Much…………………………………………………………………………………

5. I never thought that I would win a prize.

It had…………………………………………………………………………………

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the suggested word. (1 point)

1. Just after solving one problem, I was faced with another.
   Hardly ………………………………………………………
2. Getting specialized qualification will benefit you.
   It will be in …………………………………………………
3. We have to repay the loan, now that we have promised to.
   We are.………………………………………………………
4. ‘Oh, just a minute, was it Leonardo or Michelangelo who painted the Mona Lisa?’
   He couldn’t remember ………………………………………..
5. The company will well make a profit next year.
   I wouldn’t be surprised …………………………………………

III. Writing an essay. (2.8 points)

Write about a film you like best (100-120 words)

ĐÁP ÁN

Part A: Pronunciation

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in the same group (circle your choice). (0.6 point)

1. D. 2. D 3. C.

II. Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others. (0.4 point)

4. B. 5. C.

Part B: Vocabulary

I. Find a suitable word to fill in each blank in the sentences. (1 point)

1. various 2. breeds. 3. forester. 4. damage. 5. that.

II. Choose the best word to complete each of the following sentences. (1 point)

1. D. 2. B. 3. A. 4. C. 5. A.

Part C: Grammar

I. Lexico-grammar.

Choose the correct form of the verbs to complete the sentences. (2 points)

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C

8. A 9. D 10. B

Choose the correct word to complete each of the sentences. (1.2 points)

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. C

II. Sentence Structures.

Choose the correct options among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as or best suited to complete the given one. (2 points)

1. B. 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D. 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. C

III. Word Formation.

Write the correct form of the words in parentheses in the blanks (1 point).

1. knowlegeable 2.widespread. 3. worsened.

4. sickness. 5. informed .

Part D: Reading Comprehension

I. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (2 points)

1. B. 2. D. 3. C. 4. A 5. C

6. C 7. D. 8. B. 9. C. 10. D

II. Read the following passage and write the answers for the questions. (1 point)

1. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.

2. before take off.

3. The two closest to the passenger’s seat.

4. move away.

5. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions. (2 points)

1. D 2. C 3. B. 4. A 5. B 6. B

7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A.

Part E: Writing

I. Identify the errors in the following sentences. (1 point)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D

II. Sentence Transformation.

Rewrite the following sentences with the words provided so that the meaning of each sentence remains unchanged. (1 point)

1. I’ve yet to meet anyone who is more generous than Andrew.

2. Not as many people live to retirement age in the Philippines as in Britain.

3. He is going to have his father fix the ball tomorrow.

4. Much as she studies, she never seems to succeed.

5. It had never crossed my mind that I’d win a prize.

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the suggested word. (1 point)

1. Hardly had I solved one problem than I was faced with another.
2. It is/will be in your interests to get/that you get a specialized qualification.
3. We are obliged to repay the loan. / We are committed to repaying the loan.
4. He couldn’t remember if it was Leonardo or Michelangelo who (had) painted the Mona Lisa?
5. I wouldn’t be surprised if the company made a profit next year.

III. Writing an essay. (2.8 points)

Write about a film you like best (100-120 words)(2.8ps)

Open:.0.5

Body:1.8

Conclusion:0.5

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.

1. __________ he has never borrowed any money from me.

2. ‘Go on, finish the food. It needs __________ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.

3. Before he left on his trip to America, the young man promised __________to his parents regularly.

4. I'm on a(n) __________. I want to lose some weight.

5. Andrew couldn’t __________ himself laughing at the expression on Maggie’s face.

6. It looks like they're going to succeed __________ their present difficulties.

7. This motorbike is very economical.

8. You must make them __________their homework.

9. No one in my neighborhood knew who the __________ man was.

10. Nam Cao devoted most of his time __________

11. My brother sang __________ of all the pupils of the group.

12. If you__________ to my advice in the first place, you wouldn't be in this mess right now.

13. His government insisted that he __________ until he finished his task.

14. In Buckingham Palace two men work __________ to look after the 300 clocks.

15. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.

16. I've been trying to __________ him all day.

17. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to _____ the gas supply to the flat.

18. She didn't mind __________ going with her .

19. She told him to shut up and get out.

20. Mexico was a Spanish colony.

III. Error identification:

1. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.

2. How did you manage getting here so quickly?

3. Ms Baker , she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of workers, is an successful woman in the world.

4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.

5. You've seen her new car, haven't you? How is it like?

6. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.

7. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.

8. It is not until his father came home which he did his homework.

9. The children are exciting about the field trip.

10. If I didn’t liked you, I wouldn’t invite you to my house.

IV. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D, best fits each space.

Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (1)______ complicated as it is serious. It is complicated (2)______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (3)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile (4)______ transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much (5)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large number of people.

Thus, to end (6)_______ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (7)______ using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be (8)______ reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the (9)______ of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that (10)______ businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.

V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each question.

Aspirin's origins go back at least as early as 1758. In that year, Englishman Edward Stone noticed a distinctive bitter flavor in the bark of the willow tree. To Stone, this particular bark seemed to have much in common with "Peruvian Bark", which had been used medicinally since the 1640s to bring down fevers and to treat malaria. Stone decided to test the effectiveness of the willow bark. He obtained some, pulverized it into tiny pieces, and conducted experiments on its properties. His tests demonstrated that this pulverized willow bark was effective both in reducing high temperatures and in relieving aches and pains. In 1763, Stone presented his findings to the British Royal Society.

Several decades later, further studies in the medicinal value of the willow bark were being conducted by two Italian scientists. These chemists, Brugnatelli and Fontana, determined that the active chemical that was responsible for the medicinal characteristics in the willow bark was the chemical salicin, which is the active ingredient of today's aspirin.

The name "aspirin" is the trade name of the drug based on the chemical salicin, properly known as acetylsalicylic acid. The trade name "aspirin" was invented for the drug in the 1890s by the Bayer Drug Company in Germany. The first bottles of aspirin actually went on sale to the public just prior to the turn of the century, in 1899.

1. According to the passage, aspirin originated

A. no later than 1758 B. sometime after 1785

C. definitely sometimes in 1758 D. no earlier than 1758

2. It can be inferred from the passage that Peruvian Bark

A. caused fevers

B. was ineffective in treating malaria

C. was described to the British Royal Society by Stone

D. was in use prior to aspirin

3. The pronoun "it" in line 5 refers to

A. malaria B. willow bark C. effectiveness D. The British Royal Society

4. The word "properties" in line 5 could best be replaced by

A. ownership B. body C. characteristics D. materials

5. What did the willow bark look like after Stone prepared it for his experiments?

A. It was in large chunks B. It was a thick liquid

C. It was a rough powder D. It was in strips of bark

6. The Italian chemists mentioned in the passage most probably conducted their studies on willow bark

A. in the 1750s B. in the 1760s C. in the 1770s D. in the 1780s

7. What is true about Brugnatelli and Fontana?

A. They were from America B. They added a chemical to the willow bark

C. They conducted studies on the willow bark D. They were chemical doctors

8. The expression "prior to" in line 15 could best be replaced by

A. at B. before C. during D. after

9. The word "turn" in line 15 could best be replaced by

A. spin B. corner C. change D. reversal

10. Where in the passage does the author name the scientific compound that makes up aspirin?

A. Lines 2-4 B. Line 7 C. Lines 8-9 D. Lines 12-13

VI. Fill in each blank with a suitable word.

LOOKING FOR A JOB

I finished university six month (1)………….., I’ve got a degree in business administration. I enjoyed the course very much though I realize I should have studied a lot harder! A few of my friends have (2)……………got full-time jobs but most, me, are still waiting (3)………..… something suitable to turn up. Meanwhile, I make sure that I keep myself busy. I look through the job advertisements (4)…………… the newspapers every day and I also ask all the people I know to tell me if they hear of any vacancies (5)……………...they work . What I am looking for is something challenging and I would certainly be happy to move to another city or even work abroad for a while. The (6)………….… is not so important at this stage , provided I earn enough to live on, because I don’t want to continue having to depend on my parents, although they are (7)………………..generous to me . At the moment, I’m working in a nearby restaurant two evenings (8)…………….... week, washing up and generally helping out, which brings a little money. The other people working there are very friendly, and many of them are in the same (9)………………as me, so we have lots of to talk (10)…………………

VII. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given and other words to complete each sentence.

1. They are going to repair my car tomorrow.

→ I'm going to ........................................................................................................................

2. The trip was so interesting that we couldn't forget it.

→ It .........................................................................................................................................

3. Immediately after their arrival, things went wrong.

→ No sooner………………………………………………………………………………….

4. If people drive faster, it is more dangerous.

→ The.........................................................................................................................................

5. Hearing that an earthquake had occurred was a great shock to us.

→ We were ..............................................................................................................................

6. John finds astronomy very interesting.

→ John is..... .............................................................................................................................

7. If we took effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.

→ Were.....................................................................................................................................

8. I have never seen such beautiful pictures before.

→ These pictures............................. ............................... ............................... ...........................

9. "Don't forget to go to the supermarket after work".

→ He reminded ................................... ............................... ............................... ...................

10. It was a mistake of mine to park outside the police station.

→ I shouldn’t................... ......................................................................................................

VIII. Writing:

Write a short paragraph (about 120 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of the Internet

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

CÂU I: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

CÂU II: (4 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2điểm:

III: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

CÂU IV: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

CÂU V: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

CÂU VI: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

CÂU VII: (3 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,3 điểm:

1. → I'm going to have my car repaired tomorrow.

2. → It was such an interesting trip that we couldn't forget it.

3. → No sooner had they arrived than things went wrong

4. → The faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.

5. → We were (greatly/very) shocked to hear/when we heard that an earthquake had occurred

6. → John is interested in astronomy.

7. → Were we to take effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.

8. → These pictures are the most beautiful (that) I've ever seen

9. → He reminded me/her/us/them to go to the supermarket after work.

10. → I shouldn’t have parked outside the police station.

CÂU VIII: (3 điểm)

Yêu cầu:

+ Viết đúng bố cục của một bài luận.

+ Trình bày rõ ràng, sạch sẽ.

+ Không phạm nhiều lỗi về chính tả và ngữ pháp

LISTENING (40 pts)

I. Questions 1-10. (20pts)

Listen to an interview with Mick Davidson, an animal rights activist, and complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.

* Animal rights protesters destroyed expensive_______ (1) at a research laboratory.

* Davidson believes that using animals in experiments is a _______(2).

* Firms need a lot of money to set up _________ (3).

* Davidson hasn’t got any shoes that are made of ________(4).

* Newspapers publish _______ (5) that Mick Davidson has written.

* Davidson damaged a fur coat in a shop in _______ (6).

* In one illegal action, Davidson removed video _______ (7) from a laboratory, which halted the research.

* In the attack on a laboratory, Davidson and his ADG colleagues took thirty _____(8) away with them.

* Davidson doesn’t support the use of ________ (9), except against property.

* The ADG has apologized to people that they have harmed without _________ (10).

Your answers

II. Questions 1-5. (10 points)

You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.

Yours answers

III. Questions 1-5 (10 points)

You will hear a radio with a road safety expert on the topic of road rage then choose the best answer. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.

1. James says that drivers become angry if _____________.

A. they think they will be delayed. B. other drivers threaten them.

C. other people don’t drive as well as they do. D. they lose control of their car.

2. Revenge rage can lead motorists to ________________.

A. chase after dangerous drivers. B. become distracted whilst driving.

C. deliberately damage another car. D. take unnecessary risks.

3. Most ‘revenge ragers’ are ______________.

A. young male drivers. B. drivers of large vehicles.

C. inexperienced drivers. D. people who drive little.

4. What, according to James, does the experiment with grass show?

A. people living in country areas are better drivers.

B. strong smells help us drive more safely.

C. our surroundings can affect the way we drive.

D. regular breaks on a journey keep drivers calm.

5. James thinks the hi-tech car _________________.

A. sounds less irritating than a passenger. B. is not very reliable.

C. could cause further anger. D. would be difficult to control.

Your answers

LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 pts)

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)

1. At school he had a good academic record, and also __________ at sports.

2. Christine’s face _______ up when she heard the good news.

3. I think Candy _______ the prize if she plays this well during the competition.

4. Mrs. Brown always ________ in a crowd because she wore large hats.

5. She ________ on the computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

6. ______ lectures at your university?

7. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ________ and two photos.

8. Have you ever visited New York harbor _________ the famous Statue of Liberty stands?

9. _________ smart he was, he couldn't figure out how to solve the puzzle.

10. Mary is so______ that people told her all their troubles.

11. It’s essential that every student ______ the exam before attending the course.

12. Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, ________ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.

13. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but ______ I haven’t had a reply.

14. It’s not surprising that he became a writer because he always longed to see his name______.

15. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now ______.

16. Marge walked away from the discussion. Otherwise, she ______ something she would regret later.

17. Rita's very and easily gets upset when people criticize her.

18. "Fantastic sale. Everything must be sold _______of the price!"

19. In bacteria and in other organisms, _______ is the nucleic acid DNA that provides the genetic information.

20.________ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.

Your answers

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)

1. Water _________are things such as detergents, pesticides, oil, and other chemicals. (POLLUTE)

2. There are so many swear words in this article that I think it’s________. (PRINT)

3. Under her fine editorship, ________ has increased by 100,000. (CIRCULATE)

4. Deaths caused by reckless driving are ________. (AVOID)

5. In electronics, we learn to repair______ appliances. (HOUSE)

6. A recent report has warned of global food _______ unless the current system of farming and food distribution is changed. (SHORT)

7. Increasing world ______ will lead to the rise in demand for energy, food and fresh water. (PROSPEROUS)

8. The spiral and the helix are everywhere, ______, curving shapes whose incredible regularity contrasts so sharply with the random world around them. (GRACE)

9. Although a vast amount of information, imagery, and commentary has been made available, it is difficult to determine the authenticity and______ of information contained in web pages. (RELY)

10. In many countries, mobile phones now ______ land-line telephones, with most adult and many children now owning mobile phones. (NUMBER)

Your answers

III. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions. Write the answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. (10pts)

0. Poachers aren’t being punished enough for their crimes; many are let _______ without charges.

1. She’s a nature enthusiast and she will certainly jump______ the opportunity of visiting Yellow Stone National Park.

2. “Please go on talking while I’m jotting_______ my notes.” he said.

3. Unless your wife stops leading her extravagant lifestyle, you won’t get _______ on the poor salary you obtain.

4. It's like banging your head _____ a brick wall.

5. This led _____ the criticism that the music they played was no longer relevant to today's South Africans.

6. I wish my friends would call me first before they drop______.

7. He came ______ a large sum of money when his uncle died.

8. You look tired. Are you ______ the weather?

9. The book abounds ______ close-up images from space.

10. A brief outline of the course were handed ______ to the students at the first meeting.

Your answers

IV. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and correct it. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. No. (0) has been done for you. (10pts)

0. Most people are afraid from sharks.

1. A dolphin locates underwater objects in its path by doing a series of clicking and whistling sounds.

2. The council said that they had no option apart to closing the sports center.

3. More than 600 million individual bacterium live on the skin of humans.

4. In several parts of Asia, there is still a strong market for traditional medicines making from these animal parts.

5. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced disease can have severely effects on that species.

6. The number of the books in the library have risen to over five million.

7. I'm tired because I stayed up late to do all my homeworks last night.

8. Sliding across the snow at skis is one of the most ancient methods of transport known to man.

9. At a crime scene, the police will tell you to get back although they don’t want civilians to interfere with the investigation.

10. At school I disliked the chemistry’s teacher because she was always picking on me.

Your answers

READING (50 points)

I. For the following questions, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

The Great Pyramid of Giza is probably the most famous of the seven wonders of the ancient world. It ___________ (1) built by King Khufu (known as Cheops to the Greeks) around 2450 BC, and its neighbor, ___________ (2) is a little smaller, was constructed later __________ (3) his son Khefren. By the time of the beautiful Queen Cleopatra, they _________ (4) already stood against the desert skyline through the reigns of more ___________ (5) a hundred kings or pharaohs. For centuries archaeologists have puzzled over the reasons for their construction. Now a new solution __________ (6) the mystery has been proposed, according to which Great Pyramid was intended as a focus for __________ (7) pharaoh’s complicated funeral ceremony. Astronomers think the narrow passages __________ (8) from the royal burial chambers were aligned with certain stars in the 26,000-year cycle of the constellations, ___________ (9) that the dead king’s soul could be launched to the stars. The latest discovery is a hitherto unopened door in the depths of the Pyramid. Who can imagine what ___________ (10) behind it?

Your answers

II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

Some famous places are disappointing: dirty, cramped, and a bit of a cliché. But there are others (1) ______, even though you've seen every television program ever made about them, are every (2) ______ as wonderful as you'd imagined. The Grand Canyon is one of these and so, despite being next door to a main road, is Stonehenge. Another is Venice which, in its entirety, (3) ______ a great work of art, each decaying aspect revealing an (4) ______ glimpse of water or startling architecture, each individual building or piazza (5) ______ an exquisite sense of proportion. I return to Venice every two years in the course of my work and on each of these occasions I have found something new to (6) ______ at. Alarm cries about how (7) ______ this can last are sounded every now and then each time the water levels rise. But the fact that this city is (8) ______ into the sea seems to add to its romantic atmosphere. Far more serious is the depopulation, for it seems that just about every week another family leaves. Since 1945 more than half the population of Venice has moved to the mainland. The rich (9) ______ the great palazzos along the Grand Canal and visit every once in a while, but leave the windows dark for the rest of the time. Mass tourism threatens (10) ______ very structure of the city. It is a sad victim of its own success.

Your answers

III. Read the following passage about the future life. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)

The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the late 19^th century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York paper, the morning Journal.

Both were immensely popular, and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid,” the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault had been lured away from the “World” by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow Kid’ was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads.

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer Kids,” based on Wilheim Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. They first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. it was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily newspapers around the country.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A comparison of two popular comic strips.

B. The differences between early and modern comic strips.

C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.

D. Features of early comic strips in the United States.

2. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?

A. They established New York’s first newspaper.

B. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.

C. Their comic strips are still published today.

D. They owned major competitive newspapers.

3. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?

A. They provided a break from serious news stories.

B. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.

C. Readers could identify with the characters.

D. They were about real-life situations.

4. To say that Richard Outcault had been lured away from the ‘World’ by Hearst (line 9) means which of the following?

A. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World.

B. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.

C. Hearst warned Outcault to leave the World.

D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.

5. The word “it” in line 10 refers to ___________.

A. The “Yellow Kid” B. dialogue C. farce D. balloon

6. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT _____________.

A. feature the same character in each episode.

B. include dialogue inside a balloon.

C. appear in a Chicago newspaper.

D. characterize city life in a humorous way.

7. The word “incorporate” in line 12 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. affect B. create C. combine D. mention

8. The word “prototype” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. story B. humor C. drawing D. model

9. The word “staple” in line 20 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. regular feature B. Popular edition C. new version D. huge success

10. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?

A. alphabetical order by title.

B. in the order in which they were created.

C. according to the newspaper in which they appeared.

D. from most popular to least popular.

Your answers

IV. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 points)

A SILENCE FORCE

A. There is a legend that St Augustine in the fourth century AD was the first individual to be seen reading silently rather than aloud, or semi-aloud, as had been the practice hitherto. Reading has come a long way since Augustine’s day. There was a time when it was a menial job of scribes and priests, not the mark of civilization it became in Europe during the Renaissance when it was seen as one of the attributes of the civilized individual.

B. Modern nations are now seriously affected by their levels of literacy. While the Western world has seen a noticeable decline in these areas, other less developed countries have advanced and, in some cases, overtaken the West. India, for example, now has a large pool of educated workers. So European countries can no longer rest on their laurels as they have done for far too long; otherwise, they are in danger of falling even further behind economically.

C. It is difficult in the modern world to do anything other than a basic job without being able to read. Reading as a skill is the key to an educated workforce, which in turn is the bedrock of economic advancement, particularly in the present technological age. Studies have shown that by increasing the literacy and numeracy skills of primary school children in the UK, the benefit to the economy generally is in billions of pounds. The skill of reading is now no more just an intellectual or leisure activity, but rather a full-fledged economic force.

D. Part of the problem with reading is that it is a skill which not appreciated in most developed societies. This is an attitude that has condemned large swathes of the population in most Western nations to illiteracy. It might surprise people in countries outside the West to learn that in the United Kingdom, and indeed in some other European countries, the literacy rate has fallen to below that of so called less developed countries.

E. There are also forces conspiring against reading in our modern society. It is not seen as cool among a younger generation more at home with computer screens or a Walkman. The solitude of reading is not very appealing. Students at school, college or university who read a lot are called bookworms. The tern indicates the contempt in which reading and learning are held in certain circles or subcultures. It is a criticism, like all such attacks, driven by the insecurity of those who are not literate or are semi-literate. Criticism is also a means, like all bullying, of keeping peers in place so that they do not step out of line. Peer pressure among young people is so powerful that it often kills any attempts to change attitudes to habits like reading.

F. How should people be encouraged to read more? It can easily be done by increasing basic reading skills at an early age and encouraging young people to borrow books from schools. Some schools have classroom libraries as well as school libraries. It is no good waiting until pupils are in their secondary school to encourage an interest in books’ it needs to be pushed at an early age. Reading comics, magazines and low brow publications like Mills and Boon is frowned upon. But surely what people, whether they be adults or children, read is of little import. What is significant is the fact that they are reading. Someone who reads a comic today may have the courage to pick up a more substantial tome later on.

G. But perhaps the best idea would be to stop the negative attitudes to reading from forming in the first place. Taking children to local libraries brings them into contact with an environment where they can become relaxed among books. If primary school children were also taken in groups into bookshops, this might also entice them to want their own books. A local bookshop, like some local libraries, could perhaps arrange book reading for children which, being away from the classroom, would make the reading activity more of an adventure. On a more general note, most countries have writers of national importance. By increasing the standing of national writers in the eyes of the public, through local and national writing competitions, people would be drawn more to the printed word. Catch them young and, perhaps, they just might then all become bookworms.

A. The Reading Passage above has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable heading from the List of Headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xi) in boxes 1-5. (5 points)

Paragraph D and G have been done for you as an example. Any heading may be used more than once.

B. Do the following statements agree with the information in the reading text. (5 points)

In boxes 6-10, write

Yes if the statement agrees with the information

No if the statement contradicts the information

Not Given if there is no information about the statement

6. European countries have been satisfied with past achievements for too long and have allowed other countries to overtake them in certain areas.

7. Reading is an economic force.

8. The literacy rate in less developed nations is considerably higher than in all European countries.

9. If you encourage children to read when they are young the negative attitude to reading that grows in some subcultures will be eliminated.

10. People should be discouraged from reading comics and magazines.

Your answers

V. For questions 1-5, choose the best phrase or sentence A- H (given below the text) to fill each of the blanks in the following text. Write on letter (A-H) in corresponding numbered boxes. Three of the suggested answers do NOT fit at all. (10pts)

SHORT OF FUNDS

You see, I started the job with the highest of hopes. I mean, I’d never really thought of fund-raising as a career, but at the end of the day it’s a job, isn’t it? It pays the bills. Well, it would have done if they hadn’t kept ____________ (1).That was the trouble. First they wanted me to phone their precious sponsors, then they said I should forget them and concentrate on ____________ (2). And of course, I was having to input everything on this all-singing, all-dancing computer- you wouldn’t believe the things it could do! I wasn’t getting on well with my boss either- you could tell I just wasn’t her flavor of the month. Who knows why? ____________ (3). But when she discovered I hadn’t raised any money at all in the whole three months I’d been there it all went pear-shaped and I found myself out on my ear. Well, I never liked it much there anyway. Being unemployed isn’t ____________ (4). I’ve got enough money to tide me over till about September. I’m still looking around for something else, but if there’s absolutely nothing and push comes to shove, I might try and ____________ (5) on the internet. It can’t be that difficult, can it?

A.I must have raised a lot of money to please her

B. the end of the world

C. I must have done something to upset her

D. the end of the tunnel

E. moving the goalpost

F. go on business

G. attracting new donors

H. set up my own business

Your answers

PART IV. WRITING (50points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the sentence before it. (10 points)

1. The telephone rang right after he had left the room.

→ Hardly……………………………………………………………………………..

2. But for his contributions, the project wouldn’t have been completed successfully.
→ If it ………………………………………………………………………………..

3. Mark is a passionate skier and he also takes part in skateboarding tournaments.

→ Apart from………………………………………………………………………...

4. You are allowed to play in my garden if you promise not to do anything wrong.

→ So long …………………………………………………………………………...

5. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the venue.

→ It was only ………………………………………………………………………………………….

II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 points)

1. Tim looks nothing like his father. (TAKE)

→Tim……………………………………………………………………………….his father.

2. There's no point asking Lynda to help as she's really busy. (WASTE)
→It's……………………………………………… asking Lynda to help as she's really busy.

3. I'm sure it was Anna I saw in town as I recognized her coat. (MUST)
→It ………………………………………………Anna I saw in town as I recognized her coat.

4. He made unsuccessful attempt to buy the company. (WITHOUT)

→ He…………………………………………………………………………………..success.

5. I'd be grateful if you would check these accounts for me. (MIND)

→ Would……………………………………………………………………………….for me?

III. Write a paragraph of about 150 -180 words to express your opinion on the following topic (30 pts)

“Participating actively in volunteer work makes you become a responsible person to the community.”

ĐÁP ÁN

LISTENING (40 pts)

I. Questions 1-10. (20 pts)

Listen to an interview with Mick Davidson, an animal rights activist, and complete the sentences.

II. Questions 11-20 (10 pts)

You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club.

III. You will hear a radio with a road safety expert on the topic of road rage then choose the best answer. (10 points)

LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 pts)

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions (20pts)

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. (20 pts)

III. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions. (10pts)

IV. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and correct it. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. No. (0) has been done for you. (10pts)

* Học sinh xác định đúng lỗi nhưng không sửa hoặc sửa sai thì được nửa số điểm quy định (0,5pts)

III. READING (50 points)

I. For the following questions, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. (10pts)

II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10pts)

III. Read the following passage about the future life. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the passage. (10 pts)

IV. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 points)

V. For questions 1-5, choose the best phrase or sentence A- H (given below the text) to fill each of the blanks in the following text. (10pts)

PART IV. WRITING (50 pts)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the sentence before it. (10 pts)

1. Hardly had he left the room when the telephone rang.

2. If it had not been for his contributions, the project wouldn’t have been completed successfully.

3. Apart from being a passionate skier, Mark also takes part in skateboarding tournaments.

4. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong, you are allowed to play in my garden.

5. It was only when the journalists arrived at the venue that they heard about the changes to the wedding plans.

II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 pts)

1. doesn’t take after

2. a waste of time

3. must have been

4. attempted to buy the company without

5. you mind checking these accounts

III. Write a paragraph of about 150 -180 words to express your opinion on the following topic

(30 pts)

“Participating actively in volunteer work makes you become a responsible person to the community.”

Marking scheme

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