10 đề thi thử thpt qg môn tiếng anh 2019-2020 có đáp án-tập 4

10 đề thi thử thpt qg môn tiếng anh 2019-2020 có đáp án-tập 4

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Tác giả: Thầy Tùng

Đăng ngày: 22 Aug 2022

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ĐỀ 31

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. wounded B. combined C. considered D. believed

2. A. research B. resent C. resemble D. resist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. describe B. descent C. design D. descant

4. A. disappear B. recommend C. understand D. volunteer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. Gold_____________ in California in the 19 century

A. has been discovered B. was discover C. they discovered D. was discovered

6. She has read ______ interesting book.

A. a B. an C. the D. no article

7. Jupiter is _______ planet in the solar system.

A. the biggest B. the big C. the bigger D. biggest

8. Tommy wanted to know ______ .

A. why his friends laughing B. why did his friends laugh

C. the reason why his friends laughing

D. why his friends were laughing

9. He was believed ______ 3 years ago.

A. to have gone back hometown B. to go back hometown

C. to be go back hometown D. to have been gone back hometown

10. Education in England puts ______ force for children from 9 to 16 years old.

A. into B. on C. off D. through

11. I am _______ at paying my bills on time.

A. hopeful B. hopeless C. hope D. hoping

12. Students who study far from home often have problems with _______.

A. houses B. rooms C. flats D. accommodation

13. In his latest speech, the Secretary General_______ the importance of wildlife conservation.

A. stressed B. excused C. extorted D. remained

14. Some days of rest may help to _______ the pressure of work.

A. reduce B. lower C. chop D. crease

15. Murder is a serious crime and one rarely ______________ with it.

A. get away B. go away C. turn away D. come away

16. She used to be very thin but she has __________ a bit now.

A. filled in B. finished off C. filled out D. fired away

17. The computer has had an enormous ______ on the way we work and enjoy life.

A. impression B. influence C. change D. alternation

18. Making mistakes is all _______of growing up.

A. chalk and cheese B. cats and dogs C. part and parcel D. Here and there

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

19. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later.

Laura: “ Well, it’s getting late. May be we could get together sometime.”

Ken: “_______________”

A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy.

C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.

20. Helen and Mary are talking about Mary’s result at school.

- Helen: “Your parents must be proud of your result at school!”

- Mary: “_______.”

A. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging B. I’m glad you like it

C. Sorry to hear that D. Of course

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions

21. During their five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. going off B. going over C. going by D. going ahead

22. The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List is a comprehensive catalogue of the conservation status of species.

A. complete B. rational C. understandable D. valuable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

23. Your experience with oil well fires will be invaluable to the company in case of trouble

A. precious B. priceless C. important D. worthless

24. A thrifty buyer chases fruits and vegetables in season.

A. professional B. economical C. careful D. extravagant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

CRITICISM

It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be (25).............. of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your mind to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your purpose and let constructive criticism have a positive (26).............. on your work. If someone says you’re totally lacking talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, however, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (27).............. their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars (28).............. were once out of job. There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to turn (29).............. well if you persevere and stay positive.

25. A. knowledgeable B. clever C. worried D. aware

26. A. affect B. effect C. result D. change

27. A. cautious B. consider C. reckon D. remember

28. A. which B. whom C. when D. that

29. A. away B. on C. out D. off

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

TRAVELING TO WORK

If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have disadvantages.

Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different places around the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they are placed with and take of children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that interest adults.

For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a good choice. There are English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have a chance to travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language.

The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be technicians helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band’s crew to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn’t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues and hotels.

Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much besides the inside of airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and family member can sometimes fly free as well. Its is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as well as security issues.

All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future.

30. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair?

A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world.

C. experience many aspects of the new culture. D. most activities are centered around children.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Jobs with opportunities to travel. B. Disadvantages of traveling jobs.

C. Traveling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes.

32. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ?

A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages

33. Which of the following is something a roadie might do?

A. set up the lights for a performance. B. play the guitar in front of a large audience.

C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left. D. work on the road

34. It can be inferred from the passage that ..................

A. traveling careers have more disadvantages than many other.

B. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work.

C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks.

D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time. If corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the difference between the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let him work out, with the help of other children if he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a good way of saying or doing this or not.

If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book. Let him correct his own papers. Why should we, teachers, waste time on such routine work? Our job should be to help the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of grades, exams, and marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know.

Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school teachers if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the rest of one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?” Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it.

35. What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things?

A. By listening to explanations from skilled people B. By copying what other people do

C. By asking a great many questions D. By making mistakes and having them corrected

36. The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are..................

A. basically the same as learning other skills B. basically different from learning adult skill

C. not really important skills D. more important than other skills

37. What does the author think teachers do which they should not do?

A. They give children correct answers.

B. They allow children to mark their own work.

C. They encourage children to copy from one another.

D. They point out children’s mistakes to them.

38. The word “those” in paragraph 1 refers to...................

A. skills B. performances C. changes D. things

39. According to paragraph 1, what basic skills do children learn to do without being taught?

A. reading, talking, and hearing B. talking, climbing, and whistling

C. running, walking, and playing D. talking, running, and skiing

40. Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be estimated by..................

A. parents B. educated persons C. the children themselves D. teachers

41. The word “essential” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to...................

A. wonderful B. important C. complicated D. difficult

42. The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are...................

A. too critical of themselves B. unable to use basic skills

C. too independent of others D. unable to think for themselves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

43. It is vitally important that she takes this medication night and morning.

A B C D

44. Had it not been for you help me, I wouldn’t have been succeeded.

A B C D

45. The industrial trend is in the direction of more machines and less people.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

46. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile

A. This job is not rewarding at all.

B. This job offers a poor salary.

C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.

D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.

47. At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement

A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.

B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement

C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement

D. The two sides never look like each other

48. No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed.

A. Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.

B. However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.

C. It’s hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.

D. Fred tried hard to start the car, and with success.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

49. The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers

A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.

B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.

C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.

D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.

50. No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.

A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.

B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.

C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.

D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one.

..........THE END..........

ĐÁP ÁN

1A

2A

3D

4D

5D

6B

7A

8D

9B

10A

11B

12D

13A

14A

15A

16C

17B

18C

19C

20A

21D

22A

23D

24D

25D

26B

27B

28D

29C

30D

31A

32C

33A

34B

35B

36A

37D

38B

39B

40C

41B

42D

43­C

44­B

45­D

46D

47B

48B

49D

50C

GIẢI CHI TIẾT

1: Đáp án A

Đáp án A phiên âm là / id /, các phương án khác phiên âm là / d /

wounded /wu:ndid/ : bị thương

combined /kɔm’bain/ : kết hợp

considered / kənˈsidər/ : xem xét

believed /bi’liv/ : tin tưởng

2: Đáp án A

Đáp án là A: research /rɪ'sɜ:tʃ/: nghiên cứu có phần gạch chân phát âm là /s/.

Các phương án khác có phần gạch chân phát âm là /z/.

resent /ri’zent/: bực tức

resemble /ri’zembl/: giống nhau

resist /ri’zist/: chống lại

3: Đáp án D

Đáp án D nhấn âm 1, còn lại nhấn âm 2

describe / dis'kraib/: mô tả

descent / di'sent/: sự xuống dốc

design / di'zain/: thiết kế

descant / 'deskænt/: bài bình luận dài

4: Đáp án D

Đáp án D nhấn âm 1, còn lại nhấn âm 2

disappear / disə'piə/: biến mất

recommend / rekə'mend/: giới thiệu

understand / ʌndə'stænd/: hiểu ý

volunteer / vɔlən'tiə/: tình nguyện

5: Đáp án D

Bị động của thì quá khứ đơn: S + was/were + PP

Dịch nghĩa: Vàng được khám phá vào thế kỷ 19

6: Đáp án B

A/an + N không xác định.

The + N xác định.

An + N bắt đầu là nguyên âm (a, e, u, i, o)

Dịch nghĩa: Cô ấy đọc một quyển sách thú vị

7: Đáp án A

So sánh nhất của tình từ ngắn “big” là the biggest

Dịch nghĩa: Sao Mộc là hành tinh lớn nhất trong hệ Mặt trời

8: Đáp án D

Câu tường thuật dạng câu hỏi: Lùi thì, không đảo ngữ

Dịch nghĩa: Tommny muốn biết tại sao bạn của anh ấy đang cười

9: Đáp án B

Câu bị động của động từ tường thuật chia cùng thì:

S + tobe + PP + to Vo

Dịch nghĩa: Anh ấy được tin rằng đã trở về quê 3 năm trước

10: Đáp án A

Cụm từ put into force: bắt buộc

Dịch nghĩa: Giáo dục thì bắt buộc cho trẻ em từ 9 đến 16 tuổi

11: Đáp án B

Cụm từ tobe hopeless at: vô vọng

Dịch nghĩa: Tôi vô vọng với việc chi trả hóa đơn đúng hạn

12: Đáp án D

Dịch nghĩa: Những học sinh mà sống xa nhà thường có vấn đề về chỗ ở

13: Đáp án A

Stress: nhấn mạnh

Excuse: xin lỗi

Extort: tống tiền

Remain: duy trì

Dịch nghĩa: Trong bài phát biểu mới nhất của mình, Tổng thư ký nhấn mạnh tầm quan trọng của việc bảo tồn động vật hoang dã.

14: Đáp án A

Reduce the pressure: giảm áp lực

Dịch nghĩa: Một số ngày nghỉ ngơi có thể giúp giảm bớt áp lực công việc

15: Đáp án A

get away with: trốn phạt, thoát khỏi hình phạt

turn away: quay đi

Dịch nghĩa: Giết người là phạm tội nghiêm trọng, hiếm ai có thể thoát khỏi sự trừng phạt

16: Đáp án C

filled in: điền vào

finished off: hoàn thành

filled out: trở nên

fired away: nổ súng

Dịch nghĩa: Cô ấy đã từng rất gầy, nhưng giờ cô ấy béo lên chút rồi

17: Đáp án B

Have an influence on : Có ảnh hưởng đến…

Dịch: Máy tính đã có một ảnh hưởng rất lớn về cách chúng ta làm việc và tận hưởng cuộc sống.

18: Đáp án C

Giải thích: part and parcel of something: phần thiết yếu của cái gì

Dịch nghĩa: Mắc sai lầm là phần thiết yếu của sự trưởng thành.

chalk and cheese: hoàn toàn khác biệt

here anh there: khắp mọi nơi

cats and dogs: mưa to

19: Đáp án C

Dịch: Ken và Laura đang nói tam biệt nhau sau khi đi đến trung tâm Lotte. Và họ sắp có một lịch hẹn với nhau sau đó.

- Ừm, trời đang dần tối rồi. Có lẽ chúng ta nên gặp mặt dịp khác.

- Nghe có vẻ ổn đây. Tớ sẽ gọi cho cậu.

Các đáp án còn lai

A. Rât vui được gặp lai ban

B. Tư nhiên đi

D. Đúng, tôi rất thích nó

20: Đáp án A

Giải thích: Ai đó khen thì mình phải cám ơn.

Dịch nghĩa: Helen: “Bố mẹ bạn chắc hẳn phải tự hào về kết quả học tập ở trường lắm.”

Mary: “Cám ơn bạn. Điều đó chắc chắn khích lệ tôi rất nhiều.”

21: Đáp án D

Advance (v): tiến triển, cải tiến

A. go off: hỏng, ôi thiu, nổ(bom)

B. go over: vượt qua

C. go by : trôi qua

D. go ahead: tiến triển

Dịch nghĩa: Trong suốt lịch sử 5 thập kỉ, Asian Games đã cải tiến về tất cả các mặt

22: Đáp án A

Comprehensive: bao quát; toàn diện

Complete: đầy đủ, trọn vẹn

Rational: hợp lý, phải lẽ

Understandable: có thể hiểu được

Valuable: có giá trị lớn, quý báu

=> từ gần nghĩa nhất là complete

Dịch câu: Danh sách đỏ quốc tế về Bảo tồn Thiên nhiên là một danh mục toàn diện về tình trạng bảo tồn các loài

23: Đáp án D

A. precious: đắt giá

B. priceless: vô giá

C. important: quan trọng

D. worthless: không có giá trị Invaluable: vô cùng quý giá >< worthless

Dịch nghĩa: Kinh nghiệm của bạn đối với các vụ hỏa hoạn dầu hỏa sẽ là vô giá đối với công ty khi xảy ra vấn đề.

24: Đáp án D

Thrifty: tiết kiệm/ đạm bạc

Professional: chuyên nghiệp

Economical: tiết kiệm

Careful: cẩn thận

Extravagant: hoang phí

=>Thrifty >< Extravagant

Dịch nghĩa: Một người tiêu dùng tiết kiệm theo đuổi trái cây và rau trong mùa

25: Đáp án D.

Tạm dịch: One thing you have to be of is that:

Một điều mà bạn phải đó là

A. knowledgeable about: biết nhiều

B. clever: sáng dạ, thông minh

C. worried about: lo lắng

D. aware of: biết, nhận thức được

Ex: Even though some smokers are well aware of the bad effects of smoking, they don't give it up.

Sau chỗ trống có giới từ of → Đáp án đúng là D. aware.

26: Đáp án B.

Tạm dịch: let constructive criticism have a positive on your work: Hãy để phê bình mang tính xâydựng có một tích cực lên công việc của bạn.

A. affect (v): ảnh hưởng đến

Ex: Exhaust fumes badly affect the environment.

B. effect (n): sự ảnh hưởng

C. result (n): kết quả

D. change (n): sự thay đổi

Chỗ trống cần một danh từ và sau chỗ trống là giới từ on

→ Đáp án đúng là B.

Ta có cấu trúc: to have a positive effect on sth: có ảnh hưởng tích cực đến cái gì.

Ex: His encouragement has a positive effect on her spirit

27: Đáp án B.

Tạm dịch: you should their suggestions carefully:

bạn nên đề xuất của họ một cách cẩn thận

A. cautious (adj): thận trọng, cẩn thận

Ex: You should be cautious about talking to him.

B. consider (v): cân nhắc, xem xét

Ex: You should consider his suggestion. I think it's an interesting idea.

C. reckon (v): nghĩ, tính, đếm

Ex: I reckon that I'm going to get that job.

D. remember (v): nhớ

Đáp án là B. to consider one's suggestion: cân nhắc đề nghị của ai.

28: Đáp án D.

Tạm dịch: There are many film stars were once out of job: Có rất nhiều ngôi sao điện ảnh đã từng được một lần bị mất việc.

Chỗ trống cần một đại từ quan hệ chỉ người làm chủ ngữ. Vậy chỉ có đáp án D. that là phù hợp.

29: Đáp án C.

Tạm dịch: But things are more likely to turn well if you persevere and stay positive: Nhưng mọi thứ có nhiều khả năng tốt nếu bạn kiên trì và giữ thái độ tích cực.

- to turn away: quay đi

- to turn on >< to turn off: bật – tắt

- to turn out: hóa ra, trở thành, trở nên

Ex: He turned out to be the owner of the restaurant. Vậy chỉ có đáp án C. out là phù hợp.

30: Đáp án D

Điều nào sau đây là một bất lợi của công việc làm au pair?

A. trải nghiệm nhiều điều thú vị.

B. sống ở nhiều nơi khác nhau trên khắp thế giới.

C. trải nghiệm nhiều khía cạnh của một nền văn hoá mới.

D. hầu hết các hoạt động đều tập trung quanh trẻ em.

Dẫn chứng ở câu cuối- đoạn 2: “However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that interest adults” – (Mặc dù vậy, nhiều hoạt động chỉ tập trung xung quanh trẻ em, do đó họ không thể trải nhiệm được những thú vui dành cho người lớn).

31: Đáp án A

Đoạn văn thảo luận chính về điều gì?

A. Các công việc có cơ hội đi du lịch.

B. Nhược điểm của công việc đi du lịch.

C. Vận chuyển đến và đi từ công việc.

D. Các công việc có liên quan đến đi du lịch bằng máy bay.

Giải thích: Đoạn văn đề cập đến các công việc có cơ hội đi du lịch như: au pair, English teacher, roadie, flight attendant.

32: Đáp án C

Từ “they” ở đoạn 2 ám chỉ tới .

A. mọi người.

B. những cơ hội.

C. nghề ngiệp, công việc.

D. những bất lợi.

Đọc cả lên câu phía trước: “There are many jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have disadvantages”- (Ngày nay, có rất nhiều công việc trao cho người ta cơ hội được đi du lịch. Mặc dù những công việc liên quan tới du lịch đó nghe có vẻ rất tuyệt, nhưng chúng cũng đồng thời có những bất lợi).

Như vậy “they” ám chỉ tới “traveling careers”.

33: Đáp án A

Điều nào sau đây là điều mà “roadie” có thể làm?

A. Lắp đặt đèn chiếu sáng cho cuộc biểu diễn.

B. Chơi đàn guitar trước một lượng khán giả lớn.

C. Dọn dẹp phòng khách sạn sau khi nhóm nhạc và đoàn rời khỏi.

D. Làm việc trên đường phố.

Dẫn chứng ở câu thứ 2+3- đoạn 4: “Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events” – (Roadie là những người làm việc và đi cùng với những ban nhạc và đưa ra hỗ trợ về mặt kĩ thuật. Những người roadie có thể làm trong đội ngũ ánh sáng hoặc ban hậu cần- là những người dựng sân khấu và phụ trách nó trước và sau sự kiện).

34: Đáp án B

Có thể suy ra từ đoạn văn rằng .

A. Những công việc gắn với việc phải đi đây đó có nhiều bất lợi hơn những công việc khác.

B. Giáo viên Tiếng Anh nước ngoài không biết ngôn ngữ của nước mà họ làm việc.

C. Công việc mà bạn chọn cần phải có nhiều thuận lợi hơn bất lợi.

D. Những người muốn đi du lịch có thể có được 1 công việc.

Dẫn chứng ở câu cuối- đoạn 3: “One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language” – (Một bất lợi đó là nhiều giáo viên thường xuyên chỉ đi giao thiệp với những giáo viên Tiếng Anh khác, và họ không có thời gian để học ngôn ngữ của đất nước đó).

Dịch bài

Nếu bạn định chọn một công việc liên quan đến du lịch, điều gì sẽ là lựa chọn đầu tiên của bạn? Ngày nay, có rất nhiều công việc cung cấp cho mọi người cơ hội để được đi du lịch. Mặc dù có thể những công việc liên quan đến du lịch nghe rất tuyệt vời, nhưng chúng cũng có những bất lợi.

Trở thành một “au pair” (tiếng Pháp, có nghĩa là một người trẻ nước ngoài, thường là phụ nữ, giúp việc nhà hoặc chăm sóc trẻ để đổi lại được ăn và ở miễn phí) là một cách tuyệt vời để không chỉ đi đến các quốc gia khác nhau, mà còn để sống ở những nơi khác nhau trên khắp thế giới và cảm nhận về văn hoá. Au pair sống chung với các gia đình và chăm sóc con cái của họ. Nhiều bậc cha mẹ cho au pair tham gia các sự kiện gia đình và kỳ nghỉ, do đó, họ được trải nghiệm nhiều khía cạnh của nền văn hóa mới trong khi làm việc. Tuy nhiên, nhiều hoạt động chỉ tập trung xung quanh trẻ em, do đó họ có thể không trải nhiệm được nhiều thứ gây hứng thú cho người lớn.

Đối với những người muốn tự do hơn một chút khi làm việc ở nước ngoài, trở thành một giáo viên tiếng Anh có thể là một lựa chọn tốt. Có nhiều công việc dạy tiếng Anh ở hầu hết các quốc gia trên thế giới. Những người dạy tiếng Anh ở các nước khác thường có cơ hội đi du lịch vào những ngày cuối tuần trên khắp đất nước. Một trở ngại đó là nhiều giáo viên thường chỉ giao thiệp với các giáo viên tiếng Anh khác, và họ không có thời gian để học ngôn ngữ của đất nước đó

Biệt hiệu "roadie" hàm ý rằng công việc này liên quan đến cuộc sống trên đường. Roadies là những người làm việc và đi cùng với ban nhạc và cung cấp hỗ trợ về mặt kỹ thuật. Roadies có thể là làm trong đội ngũ ánh sáng và ban hậu cần- những người dựng sân khấu và chịu trách nhiệm về nó trước và sau các sự kiện. Họ cũng có thể là kỹ thuật viên giúp đỡ các thành viên của ban nhạc với công cụ của họ. Các tour du lịch quốc tế đưa đoàn của ban nhạc đến các thành phố trên khắp thế giới, thường phải đi bằng máy bay. Tuy nhiên, đoàn không có nhiều thời gian, vì vậy họ có thể đi du lịch đến một số quốc gia mà không thăm thú được nhiều ngoài các địa điểm tổ chức hoà nhạc và khách sạn.

Tương tự như vậy, các tiếp viên hàng không thường đi du lịch đến các thành phố trên khắp thế giới, nhưng họ không chiêm ngắm được gì nhiều ngoài quang cảnh bên trong máy bay và khách sạn. Tuy nhiên, khi họ có thời gian nghỉ, họ thường có thể bay miễn phí, và thành viên gia đình đôi khi không cần phải trả phí máy bay. Người ta cho rằng công việc tiếp viên hàng không rất hấp dẫn, nhưng các nhân viên tiếp đó phải giải quyết các rắc rối về chuyến bay, cũng như các vấn đề về an ninh. Tất cả các công việc đều có những thuận lợi và bất lợi cho dù bạn có đi lại hay không, vì vậy nếu bạn có đam mê về du lịch, hãy nhớ những công việc này trong tương lai

35. B

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích:Tác giả nghĩ cách tốt nhất để trẻ em học mọi thứ là gì?

A. Bằng cách lắng nghe những lời giải thích từ những người có kỹ năng

B. Bằng cách sao chép những gì người khác làm

C. Bằng cách hỏi rất nhiều câu hỏi

D. Bằng cách phạm phải sai lầm và sửa chữa chúng

Thông tin: In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes.

Tạm dịch: Trong cùng một cách, trẻ học được tất cả những thứ khác mà chúng học để làm mà không được dạy – như nói, chạy, leo trèo, huýt sáo, đi xe đạp – so sánh sự thực hiện của chúng với những người có kỹ năng hơn, và từ từ khiến chúng có những thay đổi cần thiết.

Đáp án: B

36. A

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích:Đoạn văn cho thấy rằng việc học nói và học cách đi xe đạp là .

A. về cơ bản giống như các kỹ năng khác B. về cơ bản khác với học kỹ năng người lớn

C. không thực sự quan trọng kỹ năng D. quan trọng hơn các kỹ năng khác

Thông tin: In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes.

Tạm dịch: Trong cùng một cách, trẻ học được tất cả những thứ khác mà chúng học để làm mà không được dạy – như nói, chạy, leo trèo, huýt sáo, đi xe đạp – so sánh sự thực hiện của chúng với những người có kỹ năng hơn, và từ từ khiến chúng có những thay đổi cần thiết.

Đáp án: A

37. D

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích:

Tác giả nghĩ vì về các giáo viên đã làm những gì mà họ không nên làm?

A. Họ cho trẻ câu trả lời chính xác.

B. Họ cho phép trẻ đánh dấu công việc của mình.

C. Họ khuyến khích trẻ sao chép lẫn nhau.

D. Họ chỉ ra những sai lầm của trẻ đối với chúng.

Thông tin: We act as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself.

Tạm dịch: Chúng ta hành động như thể chúng ta nghĩ rằng chúng sẽ không bao giờ nhận ra một sai lầm trừ khi có người chỉ cho chúng, hoặc sửa nó nếu chúng không tự làm được. Chẳng mấy chốc, chúng trở nên lệ thuộc vào giáo viên. Hãy để chúng tự mình làm.

Đáp án: D

38. B

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích: Từ "those" trong đoạn 1 có nghĩa là

A. kỹ năng

B. sự biểu diễn/ thực hiện

C. những thay đổi

D. mọi thứ

Thông tin: In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes.

Tạm dịch: Trong cùng một cách, trẻ học được tất cả những thứ khác mà chúng học để làm mà không được dạy – như nói, chạy, leo trèo, huýt sáo, đi xe đạp – so sánh sự thực hiện của chúng với những người có kỹ năng hơn, và từ từ khiến chúng có những thay đổi cần thiết.

Đáp án: B

39. B

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Theo đoạn 1, trẻ em học được những ký năng cơ bản nào mà không được dạy?

A. đọc, nói và nghe

B. nói, leo trèo, huýt sáo

C. chạy, đi bộ, và chơi

D. nói chuyện, chạy và trượt tuyết

Thông tin: In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle…

Tạm dịch: Trong cùng một cách, trẻ học được tất cả những thứ khác mà chúng học để làm mà không được dạy – như nói, chạy, leo trèo, huýt sáo, đi xe đạp

Đáp án: B

40. C

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích:

Các kì thi, lên lớp và điểm số nên được bãi bỏ vì tiến bộ của trẻ em chỉ nên được ước tính bởi

A. bố mẹ

B. những người được đào tạo

C. chính những đứa trẻ

D. giáo viên

Thông tin: Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know.

Tạm dịch: Chúng ta hãy đưa chúng ra ngoài, và hãy để những đứa trẻ học từ tất cả mọi người trong nhiều ngày học, học cách làm thế nào để đo lường hiểu biết của chính bản thân chúng, làm thế nào để biết những gì chúng biết hoặc không biết.

Đáp án: C

41. B

Kiến thức: Từ vựng

Giải thích:essential: (adj): bản chất, cần thiết

A. wonderful (a): tuyệt vời

B. important (a): quan trọng

C. complicated (a): phức tạp

D. difficult (a): khó khăn

=> important = essential

Đáp án: B

42. D

Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu

Giải thích: Tác giả lo ngại rằng trẻ em sẽ lớn lên thành những người lớn mà

A. quá phê phán bản thân

B. không thể sử dụng các kỹ năng cơ bản

C. quá độc lập với người khác

D. không thể tự suy nghĩ

Thông tin: Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself.

Tạm dịch: Chẳng mấy chốc, chúng trở nên lệ thuộc vào giáo viên. Hãy để chúng tự mình làm.

Đáp án: D

Dịch bài đọc:

Hãy để trẻ em học cách đánh giá công việc của mình. Một đứa trẻ học cách nói chuyện về việc không học bằng việc dành thời gian sửa chữa. Nếu sửa chữa quá nhiều, chúng sẽ ngừng nói. Chúng nhận thấy một nghìn lần sự khác biệt giữa ngôn ngữ chúng sử dụng và ngôn ngữ xung quanh. Từng chút một, chúng thực hiện những thay đổi cần thiết để làm cho ngôn ngữ của chúng giống ngôn ngữ của người khác. Trong cùng một cách, trẻ học được tất cả những thứ khác mà chúng học để làm mà không được dạy – như nói, chạy, leo trèo, huýt sáo, đi xe đạp – so sánh sự thực hiện của chúng với những người có kỹ năng hơn, và từ từ khiến chúng có những thay đổi cần thiết. Nhưng ở trường, chúng ta không bao giờ cho trẻ một cơ hội để tìm ra những sai lầm của chính bản thân chúng, hãy để bản thân chúng tự sửa đổi. Chúng ta làm tất cả cho chúng. Chúng ta hành động như thể chúng ta nghĩ rằng chúng sẽ không bao giờ nhận ra một sai lầm trừ khi có người chỉ cho chúng, hoặc sửa nó nếu chúng không tự làm được. Chẳng mấy chốc, chúng trở nên lệ thuộc vào giáo viên. Hãy để chúng tự mình làm. Hãy để chúng làm việc, với sự giúp đỡ của những đứa trẻ khác nếu chúng muốn, những từ ngữ nói, hoặc những câu trả lời cho vấn đề, cho dù đây có phải là cách hay để nói hay làm điều này hay không.

Nếu nó là một vấn đề của câu trả lời đúng, vì nó có thể trong toán học hoặc khoa học, đưa cho chúng cuốn sách trả lời. Hãy để chúng tự sửa bài của mình. Tại sao chúng ta, giáo viên, lãng phí thời gian vào công việc thường ngày như vậy? Công việc của chúng ta nên giúp đỡ bọn trẻ khi chúng nói với chúng ta rằng chúng không thể tìm ra cách để có câu trả lời đúng. Hãy kết thúc tất cả những điều vô nghĩa này : lên lớp, kì thi và điểm số.

Hãy để chúng ta đưa chúng ra ngoài, và hãy để những đứa trẻ học từ tất cả mọi người trong nhiều ngày học, học cách làm thế nào để đo lường hiểu biết của chính họ, làm thế nào để biết những gì họ biết hoặc không biết.

Hãy để chúng tiếp tục công việc này theo cách có vẻ hợp lý nhất với chúng, với sự giúp đỡ của chúng ta với tư cách là giáo viên ở trường nếu chúng yêu cầu. Nghĩ về việc có một người hiểu biết được học ở trường và dành phần còn lại của cuộc đời là vô nghĩa trong một thế giới phức tạp và thay đổi nhanh chúng như chúng ta. Cha mẹ và giáo viên lo lắng nói :"Nhưng giả sử họ không học đươc điều gì đó cần thiết, điều gì khiến họ cần phải tiếp tục trên thế giới?" Đừng lo lắng! Nếu nó cần thiết, chúng sẽ đi ra thế giới và học nó.

43: Đáp án C

takes ­­> take

Giải thích: Sau cấu trúc của giả định cách:

It is important/ necessary/ essential that…. Thì mệnh đề không chia, động từ chính để ở

dạng nguyên thể không “to”

Dịch nghĩa: Nó rất quan trọng rằng cô ấy dùng thuốc liên tục sáng tối.

44: Đáp án B

you help me ­­> your help

Giải thích: sau giới từ “for” ở đây cần dụng danh từ/ cụm danh từ

Dịch nghĩa: Nếu không phải có sự giúp đỡ của bạn, tôi đã không thể thành công

45: Đáp án D

less ­­> fewer

Giải thích: people là danh từ đếm được nên khi so sánh số lượng ít hơn ta dùng few ­­> fewer

Little ­­> less dùng cho danh từ không đếm được

Dịch nghĩa: Xu hướng công nghiệp đang trong chiều hướng nhiều máy móc và ít người hơn.

46: Đáp án D

The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.

“Nếu không phải vì tiền, công việc này không đáng làm chút nào”

Đáp án D là sát nghĩa với câu gốc nhất: “Điều duy nhất khiến công việc này đáng để làm đó là tiền.” Các phương án khác nghĩa không giống với câu gốc.

Phương án A: “công việc này không đáng làm chút nào”,

phương án B: “Công việc này trả lương thấp”, phương án C: “mặc dù lương bèo bọt nhưng việc này đáng làm”.

47: Đáp án B

The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement

“Hai bên trông có vẻ không thể nào đạt được thỏa thuận”

Đáp án B là sát nghĩa với câu gốc nhất: “Hai bên có vẻ không thể đạt được thỏa thuận”. Các phương án khác nghĩa không giống với câu gốc. Phương án A: “Hai bên không có thời gian để đạt được thỏa thuận”, phương án C: “Nếu hai bên đã có thời gian, họ sẽ đạt được thỏa thuận”, phương án D: “hai bên trông không giống nhau”

48: Đáp án B

However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.

“Dù Fred có cố gắng khởi động xe như thế nào, anh ấy vẫn không thể làm được”

Đáp án B là sát nghĩa với câu gốc nhất: “Dù cho Fred cố gắng thế nào, anh ấy vẫn không thể khởi động xe”. Các phương án khác nghĩa không giống với câu gốc. Phương án A: “Fred đã cố gắng rất nhiều để khởi động xe và anh ấy là thành công”, phương án C: “Rất khó cho Fre để khởi động xe vì anh ấy chưa bao giờ làm được”, phương án D sai cấu trúc ngữ pháp ở “and with success” vì không song song với mệnh đề đằng trước.

49: Đáp án D

In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.

“Nhà hàng mới trông có vẻ ổn. Mặc dù dường như chỉ có vài khách”

Đáp án D là sát nghĩa với câu gốc nhất: “Dù là có vẻ ngoài trông ổn nhưng nhà hàng mới dường như không thu hút được nhiều khách. Các phương án khác nghĩa không giống với câu gốc. Phương án A: “Để có thêm nhiều khách, nhà hàng mới nên cải thiện bề ngoài của nó”, phương án B: “nhà hàng mới sẽ có thêm nhiều khách nếu nó trông tốt hơn”, phương án C: “nếu có thêm một vài khách, nhà hàng mới trông sẽ tốt hơn”.

50: Đáp án C

The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.

“Không ai ngoại trừ các chuyên gia có thể nhận ra rằng bức tranh là đồ giả. Nó trông cực kỳ giống với bản gốc”

Đáp án C là sát nghĩa với câu gốc nhất “Bức tranh trông rất giống với bản gốc, chỉ có các chuyên gia có thể biết đó không phải là bản gốc”. Các phương án khác nghĩa không giống với câu gốc. Phương án A: “Rõ ràng rằng chỉ có một người với tài nghệ xuất sắc mới có thể làm giả bức tranh một cách hoàn hảo đến vậy, phương án B: “Các nhà nghiệp dư gần như không thể nhận ra rằng bức tranh không phải bản thật, mặc dù các chuyên gia thì lại có thể nhận ra một cách dễ dàng, phương án D: “Rất khó cho người bình thường có thể phân biệt giữa bức tranh thật và bức tranh giả”.

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ĐỀ 32

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: Paul and Daisy are discussing jobs in the future.

Paul: “I believe finding jobs will become easier for many people in the future.”

Daisy: “______”

A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.

C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.

Question 2: Peter and James are talking about their summer holidays.

- Peter: "I think summer holidays are the best time of our lives."

- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."

A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3: Linda refused ______ in the musical performance because she was sick.

A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating

Question 4: The children ______ to bed before their parents came home from work.

A. were all going B. had all gone C. had all been going D. have all gone

Question 5: I read the contract again and again ____ avoiding making spelling mistakes

A. in terms of B. by means of C. with a view to D. in view of

Question 6: The proposal ______ by the environmentalists to grow more trees has received approval from the council.

A. which suggested B. be suggested C. suggested D. was suggested

Question 7: Florida, ____ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.

A. that is known as B. is C. is known as D. known as

Question 8. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.

A. approved B. applied C. appreciated D. accomplished

Question 9: Mary received 100 dollars from her sister. She ____ the computer she wanted. It costs 200 dollars.

A. couldn’t have bought B. wouldn’t buy C. hadn’t bought D. didn’t buy

Question 10. As it was getting late, the boys decided to____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags.

A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on

Question 11:_________ back to her hometown, Julia found everything new and attractive.

A. When arrived B. As she arrives C. On arriving D. On arrival

Question 12: Employees who have a _______ are encouraged to discuss it with the management.

A. hindrance B. grievance C. disadvantage D. disturbance

Question 13.The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime.

A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance

Question 14: The police are ………………… certain who the culprit is.

A. in some ways B. more or less C. here and there D. by and by

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 15: A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage

Question 16 .A. damaged B. increased C. destroyed D. proposed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 17: A. explain B. discuss C. involve D. borrow

Question 18: A. category B. accompany C. experience D. compulsory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me growing taller.

A. objected to B. supported C. denied D. refused

Question 20: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. made room for B. put in charge of C. got in touch with D. lost control of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease.

A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable

Question 22. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.

A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23: So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world. A B C D

Question 24: If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now. A B C D

Question 25: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 26:.She received three letters this morning. All of them were from Tony

A. All of the letters from Tony were received by her this morning

B. She received three letters this morning, all of which were from Tony

C. Three of the letters she received this morning were from Tony

D. All letters from Tony were received by her this morning

Question 27.Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive

A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive

B. We were impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive

C. We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its cost

D. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28: I might have taken French last semester if I’d known it was offered

A. I took French the last semester it was offered

B. Someone offered to teach me French last semester

C. I knew French was not offered last semester

D. I didn’t take French last semester as I didn’t know it was offered

Question 29. There is no point in taking the exam when you are not prepared for it.

A. The exam is pointless even if you are prepared for it.

B. You are not allowed to take the exam without preparing for it.

C. You will get a very low point without a good preparation for the exam.

D. You shouldn't take the exam if you don't prepare well for it.

Question 30: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government

C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (8)__ by nature and everything in it. For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and thanks to his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children everywhere and without (9)__ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies (10)__ in what they do with these gifts. That varies according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time. Nature itself is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear them the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and who knows how many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born 11)__ a world of sound. Thunder filled him with fear and became a symbol of supernatural powers. In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at the seashore (12)___ the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity.

Question 31 A. found B. heard C. produced D. raised

Question 32. A. exception B. doubt C. consideration D. preparation

Question 33. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly

Question 34. A. with B. from C. in D. into

Question 35. A. terrified B. touched C. judged D. followed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Fiberscopes are one of the most important outcomes of the science of fiber optics. Fibers made of glass and transparent acrylic plastic are capable of conveying light energy, and when thousands of these fibers are combined in what is called a fiberscope, they can transmit images. The most common fiberscopes contain about 750,000 fibers, each 0.001 centimeter, or 10 microns, in diameter. For certain uses, the diameter of the fiber may be as small as 5 microns.

Fiberscopes have a wide range of applications. In the medical field, physicians use fiberscopes to examine internal organs and as an aid in delicate surgeries. Miniature probes have also been developed to view muscle fiber, skin tissue, and blood cells. Fiberscopes have also found varied uses in industry, particularly to inspect or control operations in inaccessible areas. Bundles of fiberscopes fused together in a solid plate, called a faceplate, are being used in the manufacture of television tubes and other cathode-ray tube devices.

The most far-reaching applications of fiber-optic technology are in communications. Optical fibers carry voice messages for telephone service. The sound of the voice is electronically broken down into thousands of pulses per second, which causes a transmitting laser to send coordinated pulses of light through the optical fibers. At the receiving end, the light pulses are converted to electrical signals and the voice message is reconstructed. Light-wave communication systems can handle an immensely greater number of telephone calls and television programs than the current system, and they will form the basis of the “electronic superhighway” expected to crisscross the nation in the near future of the information age.

Question 36: How do optical fibers carry voice message?

A. By sending coordinated electrical pulses through optical fibers

B. By using cathode-ray tube devices.

C. By converting electrical signals to light pulses

D. By fusing bundles of fiberscopes into a faceplate

Question 37: The word inaccessible in line 9 means _____.

A. extremely small B. impossible to climb C. hard to reach D. difficult to find

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that fiberscopes_____.

A. have more uses in industry than in medicine

B. will play a major role in the information age

C. will decrease in importance as they become more common

D. have reached the peak of their development

Question 39: Approximately how many fibers does a fiberscope contain?

A. 500,000 B. 1,000,000 C. 25,000 D. 750,000

Question 40: The main topic of the passage is ____.

A. The birth of the “electronic superhighway”

B. How fiberscopes have enhanced the field of medicine

C. How sound may be transformed into light

D. The various applications of fiber-optic technology

Question 41: The word converted is closest in meaning to_____.

A. transformed B. transmitted C. transferred D. changed

Question 42: The passage will most likely be followed by a discussion of_____.

A. the structure of fiberscopes

B. the use of fiber optics in the electronic superhighway

C. homes and businesses of the future

D. additional uses of fiberscope in industry

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.

The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.

There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.

Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.

But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.

What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.

A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.

If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.

Question 43: A well-protected house …………

A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.

C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.

Question 44: According to the writer, we should …………

A. avoid leaving our house empty.

B. only go out when we have to.

C. always keep the curtains closed.

D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.

Question 45: What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?

A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing

Question 46: The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that …………

A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.

B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.

C. will stop a potential burglar.

D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.

Question 47: According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………

A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.

C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.

Question 48: The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………

A. will prevent your home being burgled.

B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.

C. is only necessary for elderly people.

D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.

Question 49: What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?

A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine

Question 50: The best title for the text is …………

A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.

C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.

FEED BACK

1.B

2.A

3.A

4.B

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.B

9.A

10 C (put out: dập tắt (lửa))

11C ( rút gọn câu có cùng chủ ngữ đưa về V-ing)

12B

13B grievance : thắc mắc ,

A. hindrance: sự cản trở,

C. disadvantage: sự bất lợi

D. disturbance: sự rối loạn

14. B. more or less: không ít thì nhiều, hầu như

A. in some ways : bằng nhiều cách

C. here and there: đó đây, ở nhiều nơi khác nhau

D. by and by: lát nữa thôi

15. A

16. B

17 D

18. A

19. B

20. C

21. D

22. A

23. A ( Đảo ngữ So + adj + V+ S)

24.A. ( câu điều kiện loại hỗn hợp 2 và 3)

25. C ( chủ ngữ trong câu là A basic knowledge of social studies 🡪 số ít nên dùng is không dùng are)

26. B

27. B

28. D

29. D

30. A ( Cấu trúc đảo ngữ với Little đứng đầu câu dùng để nhấn mạnh)

B: Sai nghĩa

C. Sai cấu trúc

D. Sai cấu trúc

31. C

32.A

33. B

34. D

35. C

36.B

37. C

38. B

39. D

40.D

41.D

42.B

43. A

44. D

45. A

46.C

47 A

48. D

49. D

50. B

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ĐỀ 33

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part difers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. kicked B. fixed C. pleased D. missed

Question 2: A. cook B. moon C. pool D. food

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. interview B. enthusiast C. involvement D. apponent

Question 4: A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 5: He was one of only five people _______ out of over 100 applicants.

A. to interview B. was interviewed

C. interviewing D. to be interviwed

Question 6: WHO is an international organization that takes _________ of human health care.

A. responsibility B. charge C. ability D. action

Question 7: The number of unemployed people __________ recently.

A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase

Question 8: I believe that he was concerned __________ all those matters which his wife mentioned.

A. upon B. over C. above D. with

Question 9: I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.

A. carry on B. go on C. put on D. get on

Question 10: The manager can't decide whether Peter is best suitable ______running the machine or not.

A. to B. in C. for D. about

Question 11: When my father was young, he ______ get up early to do the gardening.

A. used to B. was used to C. got used to D. use to

Question 12: We __________ the decorating by the time your guests arrive here.

A. have finished B. will have finished C. had finished D. finish

Question 13: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she__________it.

A. wouldn't have accepted B. would have accepted C. would accept D. wouldn't accept

Question 14: The staff are .working at weekend ___________ delay the project any further.

A. so that not to B. not to C. for not D. so as not to

Question 15: ________ in poor health, she continued to carry out her duties to her family.

A. Because B. Although C. In spite of D. Due to

Question 16: He said he would never sell the ________ collections of stamps that his mother gave to him.

A. value B. valueless C. valuable D.valuation

Question 17: Tet holiday is a typical cultural _________ that date back many generations of Vietnamese people.

A. anthem B. costume C. tournament D. tradition

Question 18: Paul Baran _______ the Internet and the Ministry of America National Defence supported to develop it for the first time in 1969.

A. dicovered B. produced C. invented D. protected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions

Question 19: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. arrive B. happen C. encounter D. face

Question 20: I really have the greatest respect for Jane's work as she devoted her whole life to helping the poor.

A. congratulation B. cooperation C. discrimination D. admiration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions

Question 21: Mrs Gilman is seriously ill in hospital so, for the time being, her classes will be taken by other teachers.

A. temporarily B. coincidently C. suddenly D. permanently

Question 22: In Western culture, it is courteous to maintain eye contact during conversation.

A. irresponsible B. impolite C. unusual D. informal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Anne and John are talking about the next vacation

Anne: “What are you going to do for the vacation?”.

John: “ _______”

A. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days. B. That sounds great.

C. How about you? What will you do? D. I will take a reading test.

Question 24: Kate and Peter are asking about their first jobs.

Kate: “How did you feel when you first started work ?”

Peter: “ ____________ ”.

A. I don’t think so B. Not at all

C. A bit nervous D. Thanks for asking me

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might lead to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (25) _____ us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically safe.On the other hand, current research has not yet prvoed clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Numerous studies are now going (26) _____ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (27) _____, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.

Until the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long (28) _____ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (29) _____ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.

Question 25: A. enable B. lead C. let D. make

Question 26: A. by B. on C. through D. about

Question 27: A. While B. Additionally C. However D. Though

Question 28: A. quantities B. amounts C. periods D. intervals

Question 29: A. where B. that C. whose D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions below from 30 to 34.

FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES

Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the mo ney for the family. He was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.

These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?

Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband cooks dinner on other nights.

Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with t his kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that pay well.

Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend mo re time with their children. Some husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word: they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.

These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.

Question 30: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________

A. tidying up B. cooking and washing up

C. washing and ironing D. shopping

Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.

A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center

B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way

C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center

D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care

Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________

A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children

B. fathers who spend more time with their children

C. parents who work part-time

D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers

Question 33: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may ___________

A. help families B. not happen

C. cause problems for a marriage D. not change the children at all

Question 34: This article is about ________

A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America

C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a representative of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A &R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings. Once a band has signed the contract and, has finished recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the band’s album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts in this second department, thus losing their voice in the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of nice often contributes to the band’s failure as a recording group.

Question 35: Which word can be best replaced for ‘release’?

A. distribute B. pay for C. overturn D. itemize

Question 36: What will a recording company investigate once they have identified a band at a bar or a night club?

A. the Publicity Promotions

B. the band itself and current trends in popular music

C. the singers’ personal relationship

D. the signing of this recording contract

Question 37: According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is made by_______

A. the band’s manager. B. a band member.

C. an A&R representative. D. the Publicity Promotions department.

Question 38: The author mentions that a band’s success is dependent on all of the following factors EXCEPT

A. having patience.

B. making personal contacts with people in the company.

C. understanding how a record company functions .

D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands.

Question 39: According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department

A. has the final decision in producing an album.

B. handles the recording arrangements for the band.

C. sends representatives to look for new talented bands.

D. visits bars and night clubs.

Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that_______

A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young band.

B. the A& R department has a large staff.

C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate.

D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive.

Question 41: The phrase this period’ refers to……..

A. waiting for the signing of a recording contract

B. scouting for young, talented bands

C. waiting to represent the A & R department

D. preparing to have the second album

Question 42: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record.

B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company functions.

C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their album.

D. The main factors in a band’s success are luck and patience.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present

A B C D

Question 44: She kept the children amusing for hours by telling them funny stories.

A B C D

Question 45: It is time the government helped the unemploy to find some jobs.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46:He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. If only he had been able to finish his book.

B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.

Question 47:The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.

C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48:They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.

A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman

B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack

C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.

D. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.

Question 49:"I'm sorry. I didn’t do the homework." said the boy.

A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.

B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.

C. The boy denied not doing the homework.

D. The boy refused to do the homework.

Question 50:You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.

A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.

B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.

C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.

D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.

- The end -

ĐÁP ÁN

1.C

2. A

3. A

4. C

5. D

6. B

7. B

8. D

9. D

10. C

11. A

12. B

13. A

14. D

15. B

16. C

17. D

18. C

19. B

20. D

21. D

22. B

23. A

24. C

25. A

26. B

27. C

28. C

29. C

30. C

31. A

32. A

33. A

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. D

39. A

40. C

41. A

42. B

43. B

44. B

45. C

46. C

47. A

48. B

49. A

50. D

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ĐỀ 34

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. wicked B. watched C. stopped D. cooked

Question 2: A. head B. bread C. clean D. lead

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant

Question 4: A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: There is too much in this world.

A. greediness B. greed C. greedy D. greedness

Question 6: - "That's a very nice skirt you're wearing."

- “ ”

A. How a compliment! B. That's all right.

C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I like you said so.

Question 7: are the formal rules of correct or polite behavior among people using the Internet.

A. Traffic rules B. Family rules C. Codes of etiquettes D. Codes of netiquettes

Question 8: - " "

- "Yes, of course. "

A. You won't help me this time. B. You'd better give me one hand.

C. I don't think I'll need your help. D. Could you give me a hand?

Question 9: UNICEF supports and funds for the most disadvantaged children all over the world.

A. presents B. assists C. provides D. offers

Question 10: He would win the race if he his brother's example and trained harder.

A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed

Question 11: "Excuse me. Where is the office of OXFAM located?"

A. leading B. head C. central D. summit

Question 12: The doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient's life, they will try their best.

A. but B. although C. despite D. however

Question 13: I am sending you my curriculum vitae you will have a chance to study it before our interview.

A. so that B. because C. for D. since

Question 14: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm .

A. went out B. went off C. came about D. rang off

Question 15: Have a piece of chocolate, ?

A. do you B. would you C. don't you D. haven't you

Question 16: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work .

A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing

C. will have been finished D. will be finished

Question 17: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 12%___________annually.

A. interest B. profit C. money D. income

Question 18: I can’t possibly lend you any more money, it is quite out of the .

A. order B. practice C. place D. question

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.

A. marked B. separated C. shared D. hidden

Question 20: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not want to leave.

A. loved the surroundings B. planted many trees in the surroundings

C. possessed by the surroundings D. haunted by the surroundings

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: He is a typical optimist, always looking on the bright side of everything.

A. pessimist B. introvert C. extrovert D. activist

Question 22: When I was going shopping yesterday, I accidentally met one of my old friends in high school.

A. by far B. by heart C. by chance D. on purpose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks from 30 to 39.

The universal symbol of the Internet era communications, the @ sign used in e-mail addresses to signify the word 'at', is (23) a 500-year-old invention of Italian merchants, a Rome academic has revealed. Giorgio Stabile, a science professor at La Sapienza University, claims to have stumbled on the earliest known example of the symbol's use, as a(n) (24) of a measure of weight or volume. He says the sign represents an amphora, a measure of capacity based on the terracotta jars used to transport grain and liquid in the ancient Mediterranean world.

The professor unearthed toe ancient symbol in the course of research for a visual history of the 20th century, to be published by the Treccani Encyclopedia. The first (25) instance of its use, he says, occurred in a letter written by a Florentine merchant on May 4, 1536. He says the sign made its way along trade routes to northern Europe, where it came to represent 'at the price of’, its contemporary accountancy meaning.

Professor Stabile believes that Italian banks may possess even earlier documents (26) the symbol lying forgotten in their archives. The oldest example could be of great value. It could be used (27) publicity purposes and to enhance the prestige of the institution that owned it, he says. The race is on between the mercantile world and the banking world to see who has the oldest documentation of @.

Question 23: A. actually B. truly C. essentially D. accurately

Question 24: A. proof B. sign C. evidence D. indication

Question 25: A. known B. knowing C. knowable D. knowledgeable

Question 26: A. taking B. carrying C. delivering D. bearing

Question 27: A. on B. for C. with D. by

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 49.

A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 28: What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is completely frozen. B. It is a saltwater lake.

C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. D. It is heated by the sun.

Question 29: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it .

A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves

C. could not determine the lake's exact size D. was controlled by a satellite

Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if .

A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big

C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used

Question 31: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light

Question 32: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it

A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes

C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated

Question 33: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of

  1. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
  2. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
  3. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
  4. the harsh climate of Antarctica

Question 34: The purpose of the passage is to .

  1. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
  2. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
  3. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
  4. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 50 to 59.

Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness and its originality of perspective. Satire itself, however, rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the familiar in a new form. Satirists do not offer the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar conditions from a perspective that makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful, or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false.

Don Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of science; A Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None of these ideas is original. Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of pure science before Aldous Huxley, and people were aware of famine before Swift.

It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It was the manner of expression, the satiric method, that made them interesting and entertaining. Satires are read because they are aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are morally wholesome or ethically instructive. They are stimulating and refreshing because with commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irreverence, satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar objects into incongruous juxtaposition, and speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude.

Satire exists because there is need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate a refreshing stimulus, an irreverent reminder that they live in a world of platitudinous thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into an awareness of truth, though rarely to any action on behalf of truth. Satire tends to remind people that much of what they see, hear, and read in popular media is sanctimonious, sentimental, and only partially true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular image of it.

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Difficulties of writing satiric literature. B. Popular topics of satire.

C. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature. D. Reasons for the popularity of satire.

Question 36: Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal are cited by the author as .

A. classic satiric works B. a typical approach to satire

C. best satirists of all times D. good critiques by satirists

Question 37: What satires fascinates readers is how .

A. ideas are expressed B. ideas are organized C. realistic they are D. plots are created

Question 38: Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?

A. Newly emerging philosophies. B. Odd combinations of objects and ideas.

C. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics. D. Wholesome characters who are unselfish.

Question 39: According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be .

  1. informed about new scientific developments
  2. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated
  3. reminded that popular ideas may often be inaccurate
  4. told how they can be of service to their communities

Question 40: The word "refreshing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. popular B. revitalizing C. common D. awakening

Question 41: The word "sanctimonious" may be new to you. It most probably means " " in this context.

A. exaggerated B. good C. educational D. moderate

Question 42: The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT .

A. introducing readers to unfamiliar situations B. brushing away illusions

C. reminding readers of the truth D. exposing false values

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined, part that needs correction.

Question 43: Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.

A B C D

Question 44: Employees who haven't seen the new regulations often ask for unnecessary questions; instead

A B C

they should ask for a copy of the regulations and read them.

D

Question 45: The nutritionist told him to avoid eating lots of carbohydrates, focus having more protein-rich foods

A B C

and green vegetables, and drink at least eight glasses of water a day.

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.

  1. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
  2. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
  3. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
  4. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.

Question 47: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

  1. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
  2. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
  3. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
  4. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of them.

Question 48: He decided not to go to university and went to work in a restaurant.

  1. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant.
  2. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university.
  3. Instead of going to university, he went to work in a restaurant.
  4. He decided to go to work in a restaurant because he liked it.

Question 49: The secret to success is hard work.

A. Working hard ensures success. B. If you keep your work secret, you will succeed.

C. One cannot succeed if he has secrets. D. One must work hard to keep secrets.

Câu 50: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.

    1. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye.
    2. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye.
    3. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye.
    4. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.

ĐÁP ÁN

1A

2C

3D

4A

5B

6C

7D

8D

9C

10D

11B

12A

13A

14B

15A

16C

17A

18D

19C

20A

21A

22D

23A

24D

25A

26D

27B

28C

29D

30A

31C

32B

33C

34D

35D

36A

37A

38B

39C

40D

41A

42A

43B

44B

45B

46C

47C

48B

49A

50D

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 35

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.A. opened B. laughed C. watched D.missed

Question 2.A.plough B.enough C.ounce D.county

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.A. comment B. express C. office D. effort

Question 4.A. informal B. depression C.interview D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Daniel comes from ____ USA but he speaks _____ Vietnamese fluently.

A. the/ 0 B. the/ the C. 0/ the D.0/ 0

Question 6. Linda never goes to school late, ______ she?

A. doesn't B. won't C. will D. does

Question 7. We couldn't understand the teacher if he _______ too fast.

A. doesn't speak B. has spoken C. didn't speak D. spoke

Question 8.The light went out while I ______ a comic book.

A. read B. reads C. was reading D. had read

Question 9.I had to borrow some money ________ my friend because I was broke.

A. of B. to C. at D. from

Question 10. Nowadays, the divorce rate is higher than it used to be ______ young people are allowed to decide on their marriage.

A.even though B. in spite of C. but D. despite

Question 11.Remember to _______ your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.

A. take care B. take on C. take over D. take off

Question 12.We are pleased ______ the winner of this year's Award for Outstanding Achievement in Manager.

A. announcing B. to announce C. announced D. announces

Question 13.He was the only _____ that was offered the job.

A.applicant B. applying C. application D.apply

Question 14. _____ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles grow bigger.

A.Wrestling B.Badminton C.Weightlifting D.Bodybuilding

Question 15.With hard work and study, you can _____ the goals you set for yourself.

A. succeed B. increase C. achieve D. establish

Question 16.Everybody was busy with the spring cleaning, except Stanley, who always refused to pull his ______.

A.socks B.fingers C.share D. weight

Question 17.Having understood all things happened, he didn't want to _____ a fuss, he acted silently as much as possible.

A.make B.change C. do D. take

Question 18. Violent films may have a negative ______ on children.

A. dependence B. opinion C. influence D. decision

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Fruit is customarily treated with sulfur prior to drying to reduce any colour change.

A.in front of B. previous to C. subsequent to D. at the time of

Question 20.Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.

A.changes B.number. C.conservation D.variety

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21.In common with many mothers, she feels torn between her family and her work.

A.Unlike B.In association with C. Ignoring D. In imitation with

Question 22. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.

A. treatment B. speed C. improvement D. expectation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Tom and Mike are talking about a new book.

- Tom: "Your new book is so good, Mike!" - Mike: "_______."

A. Thanks, I put a lot of effort into it. B. I'd rather not

C. You can say that again D. It's up to you

Question 24. Susan wants to borrow a bike from Mike.

- Susan: "Is it all right if I use your bike?" - Mike: "_________."

A. Sure, go ahead B. Oh, sorry

C. Go straight ahead D. Please accept it with my best wishes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 25. My brother isenough young to get a scholarship fromthe government.

A. enough young B. from C. is D. government

Question 26.The result of that test must beinformbefore August.

A. must be B. before C. inform D. result

Question 27.The sign says that we should read the constructions carefully before proceeding.

A. says B. the constructions C. should D. proceeding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks

THE DANGERS OF DIETING

Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than ever before, the (28)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution to this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets as harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don't fad diets usually (29)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.

Although permanent weight loss is the goal, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95 percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (30) ______ weight. While the reckless use of fad diets can bring some initial results, long-term results are very rare.

(31)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad diets. Rather than being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (32)_____ a person's body doesn't get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.

(Adapted from "Active Skills for Reading: Book 3" by Neil J. Anderson)

Question 28.A. range B.number C. amount D. sum

Question 29.A. play B.do C. bring D. take

Question 30.A. lose B. put C.gain D. reduce

Question 31.A. Additionally B.Furthermore C.Consequently D.Nonetheless

Question 32.A. why B. what C. which D.where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth­-song to the child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.

In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.

Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a "manyatta" where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.

Question 33. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Celebrations in Africa.

B. Activities in a birth celebration.

C. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.

D. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby.

Question 34. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?

A. near the thorn fence B. at their house

C. on the cattle farm D. at the village church

Question 35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?

A. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.

B. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.

C. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.

D. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.

Question 36. The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. commence B. explore C. participate in D. experience

Question 37. (5)What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. the young warriors B. the wild animals C. the Maasai herds D. the cattle owners

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.

Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and with no pollution.

Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.

One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size.

In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar panels.

A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.

Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.

(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 38. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings.

B. Successful green building projects all over the world.

C.An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings.

D. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings.

Question 39. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially considered unrealistic presumably because _______.

A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time.

B.the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then.

C. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century.

D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings.

Question 40. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A.solar panels. B. rays of the sun. C.green builders. D. recycled materials.

Question 41. The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.

A. devices that monitor changes in temperature.

B. panels that convert solar energy into electricity.

C. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays.

D.materials that prevent heat loss and absorption.

Question 42. What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and the project in Vauban, Germany?

A.Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.

B. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.

C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.

D. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.

Question 43. The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means _______.

A.being launched. B. being inspected. C. being certified. D. being notified.

Question 44. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?

A.Increasing work productivity. B. Proving more economical eventually.

C. Being friendly to the environment. D. Improving living conditions.

Question 45. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE?

A. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.

B. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.

C.They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.

D. They are more economical and produce no pollution.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46.This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting.

A. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one.

B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.

C.The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.

D. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one.

Question 47."How about spending the day at the beach?" said Tom.

A. Tom advised us to spend the day at the beach.

B.Tom suggested spending the day at the beach.

C. Tom insisted on spending the day at the beach.

D. Tom said he wanted to spend the day at the beach.

Question 48.I'm sure it wasn't Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

A. It couldn't be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

B. It mightn't be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

C. It mustn't have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

D. It can't have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49.Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.

A. Susan feels regret because she didn't apply for the summer job in the café.

B. If only Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café.

C. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.

D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.

Question 50.The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.

A.The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C.The Prime Minister didn't explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

D.Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

ANSWER KEY

Đáp án mã đề: 135

01. ; - - - 14. - - - ~ 27.- / - - 40. ; - - -

02. - / - - 15. - - = - 28. - / - - 41. - - - ~

03. - / - - 16. - - - ~ 29.- / - - 42. ; - - -

04. - - = - 17. ; - - - 30. - - = - 43. ; - - -

05. ; - - - 18. - - = - 31. - - - ~ 44. ; - - -

06. - - - ~ 19. - / - - 32.- - - ~ 45. - - = -

07. - - = - 20. - - - ~ 33. - - = - 46. - - = -

08. - - = - 21. ; - - - 34. - - = - 47. - / - -

09. - - - ~ 22. - - = - 35. ; - - - 48. - - - ~

10. ; - - - 23. ; - - - 36.- - - ~ 49. - - - ~

11. - - - ~ 24. ; - - - 37.; - - - 50. - - = -

12. - / - - 25. ; - - - 38. - - = -

13. ; - - - 26. - - = - 39. - / - -

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 36

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Most greetings cards are folding and have a picture on the front and a message inside.

A B C D

Question 2: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.

A B C D

Question 3: The Oxford English Dictionary is well known for including many different meanings of

A B C

words and to give real examples.

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 4: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films.

A. contests B. economics C. advertisements D. businesses

Question 5: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.

A. have the obligation to B. are given the right to

C. have the right to refuse D. are refused the right to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 6: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway.

A. easy to find

B. difficult to access

C. unlikely to happen

D. impossible to reach

Question 7: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.

A. dominant B. unsatisfactory C. adequate D. abundant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: After the car crash last night, all the injured ______ to the hospital in an ambulance.

A. were rushing

B. was rushed

C. was rushing

D. were rushed

Question 9. Peter______ my best friend since we were nine.

A. has been B. was C. had been D. would be

Question 10. The 22nd SEA Games consisted of athletes from eleven ______ countries.

A. participant B. participating C. participation D. participate

Question 11: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it ____warmer.

A. were B. has been C. had been D. was

Question 12: It was so kind of her to put me ___ while I was on a business trip in her town.

A. down B. up C. in D. off

Question 13: The struggle for women’s rights began in the 18th century during a period ______ as

the Age of Enlightenment.

A. knew

B. that knew

C. known

D. is knowing

Question 14: Working as a volunteer gives her a chance to develop her interpersonal skills, promote

friendship, and ______ her own talent.

A. to discover B. discovered C. discovering D. discover

Question 15: Students are ______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.

A. under

B. above

C. upon

D. out of

Question 16: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on _____.

A. biology

B. biological

C. biologist

D. biologically

Question 17: You should look up the meaning of new words in the dictionary ______ misuse them.

A. so that not to B. so as not to C. so that not D. so not to

Question 18: My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to ______.

A. call it a day

B. tighten the belt

C. break the ice

D. make ends meet

Question 19: New machinery has enhanced the company’s productivity and ______.

A. competitive

B. competitor

C. competition

D. competitiveness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 20: The man wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.

A. In order to leave some fingerprints the man took off his gloves.

B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore gloves.

C. The man wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.

D. The man wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.

Question 21. "I will pay back the money, Linda" said Helen.

A. Helen suggested paying back the money to Linda. B.Helen apologized to Linda for borrowing her money.

C. Helen offered to pay Linda the money back. D. Helen promised to pay back Linda's money.

Question 22: I was astonished that he knew a lot about Vietnamese food.

A. I was astonished at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese food.

B. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese food amazed me.

C. I knew very little about Vietnamese food, which astonished him.

D. It surprised me that Vietnamese food was what he liked most.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 23: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D.She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 24: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house.

A.Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.

B.Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions.

C.Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.

D.Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 25: A. agreement

B. mineral

C. violent

D. elephant

Question 26: A. attack

B. depend

C. decay

D. vanish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 27: A. cities B.stops C. speaks D. dates

Question 28: A. tittle B. sprint C. diving D. drive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 29:. Two friends Mary and Sheila are talking about Sheila's new hairstyle.

Mary: “Your new hairstyle is quite attractive! - Sheila: “_______. I think it makes me look 10 years older.”

A. Yes, I am proud of myself B. Say it again. I like to hear that

C. Thank you very much D. You’ve got to be kidding

Question 30: Diana is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

Porter: "Shall I help you with your suitcase? - "Diana: "______"

A. Not a chance. B. That‘s very kind of you.

C. I can‘t agree more. D. What a pity!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY

A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that cannot be changed, but actually (31)______ is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.

We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This no doubt explains the reason (32)______ schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle with dates from their history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33)______. One way to ‗make‘ yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!

Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)______ and sends more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress, which is very bad for the memory.

The old saying that ―eating fish makes you brainy‖ may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that the fats (35)______ in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good ‗brain food‘, too.

(Source: ―New Cutting Edge‖, Cunningham, S. &

Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)

Question 31: A. there

B. it

C. that

D. this

Question 32: A. why

B. what

C. how

D. which

Question 33: A. hardly

B. slightly

C. consciously

D. easily

Question 34: A. degree

B. level

C. rate

D. grade

Question 35: A. made

B. existed

C. founded

D. found

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.

It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 36: This passage is mainly aimed at ______.

  1. giving examples of different schools
  2. telling the difference between the meaning of two related words
  3. listing and discussing several educational problems
  4. telling a story about excellent teachers

Question 37: In the passage, the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school mostly implies that ______.

  1. education is totally ruined by schooling
  2. all of life is an education
  3. schooling takes place everywhere
  4. schooling prevents people discovering things

Question 38: According to the passage, the doers of education are ______.

A. mostly famous scientists B. mainly politicians

C. only respected grandparents D. almost all people

Question 39: What does the writer mean by saying “education quite often produces surprises”?

  1. Educators often produce surprises.
  2. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions.
  3. Success of informal learning is predictable.
  4. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results.

Question 40: Which of the following would the writer support?

  1. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write.
  2. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
  3. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
  4. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

Question 41: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.

A. workings of governments B. political problems

C. newest filmmakers D. high school students

Question 42: Because the general pattern of schooling varies little from one setting to the next, school children throughout the country ______.

A. do similar things B. have the same abilities

C. are taught by the same teachers D. have similar study conditions

Question 43: From the passage, we can infer that a high school teacher ______.

A. is free to choose anything to teach B. is not allowed to teach political issues

C. has to teach social issues to all classes D. is bound to teach programmed subjects

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used the pots they made for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. Pottery was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about ancient civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of decoration, materials, glazes and manufacture, the more advanced the culture itself.

The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and imagination to create items that are beautiful as well as functional, transforming something ordinary into something special and unique.

The potter uses one of the Earth’s most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost everywhere. Good pottery clay must be free from all small stones and other hard materials that would make the potting process difficult. Most North American artisan-potters now purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right in the earth, close to where they work.

The most important tools potters use are their own hand; however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling tools, plain wire, and sponges. Plain wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter’s wheel.

After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and fired. The first firing hardens the pottery, and it is then ready to be glazed and fired again. For areas where they do not want any glaze, such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the liquid glaze and let it run over the clay surface, making any kind of decorative pattern that they want.

Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Different kinds of clay. B. The training of an artisan.

C. The making of pottery. D. Crafts of ancient civilizations.

Question 45: The word “it” in line 2 refers to ______.

A. clay B. culture C. survival D. pottery

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient civilization by

examining its pottery?

A. Its food preferences B. Its developmental stage C. Its geographic location D. Its population

Question 47: The word “functional” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Useful B. Strong C. Inexpensive D. Original

Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to ______.

A. make it dry more evenly B. remove hard substances

C. prevent the glaze from sticking D. make it easier to color

Question 49: According to the author, what do potters use to remove the pot from the wheel?

A. Melted wax B. A wire loop C. A sponge D. Plain wire

Question 50: The word “pattern” in line 15 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Model B. Color C. Puzzle D. Design

KEY:

1B, 2B, 3D, 4C, 5B, 6A, 7D, 8D, 9A, 10B,11C, 12B, 13C, 14D, 15A, 16A, 17B, 18D, 19D, 20C, 21D, 22B, 23C, 24D, 25A, 26D, 27A, 28B, 29D, 30B,31A, 32A, 33C, 34C, 35D, 36B, 37B, 38D, 39D, 40D, 41D, 42A, 43D, 44C, 45D, 46B, 47A, 48B, 49D,50D

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 37

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. needed B. formed C. trusted D. recorded

Question 2: A. daunt B. astronaut C. vaulting D. aunt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. swallow B. confide C. maintain D. install

Question 4: A. difficult B. beautiful C. determine D. similar

Question 5: Christopher Columbus America more than 500 years ago.

A. discovered B. has discovered C. had discovered D. discovers

Question 6: Many people are still in habit of writing silly things in ____ public places.

A. the – the B. the - 0 C. 0 - the D. 0 - 0

Question 7: The people live in this town are very friendly.

A. who B. where C. which D. when

Question 8: Your brother hardly talks to anyone,_________?

A. does he B. is he C. doesn’t he D. isn’t he

Question 9: If Paul _______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy.

A. has B. has had C. had D. would have

Question 10: ________ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages.

A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise

C. For exercising D. Exercising

Question 11: James was asking about a lot of personal things. I didn’t like ______ about my private life.

A. asking B. being asked C. to ask D. to be asking

Question 12: Air pollution is getting serious in big cities in the world.

A. more and more B. the more and the more

C. the most and the most D. most and most

Question 13: Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their .

A. creative B. creativity C. create D. creatively

Question 14: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to her attention.

A. attract B. pull C. follow D. pay

Question 15:A(n) _________ child means a child who behaves badly and saddens his parents

A. active B. hard-working C. obedient D. mischievous

Question 16: He rose from his chair and _________ her warmly.

A. protected B. appreciated C. replaced D. embraced Question 17: Could you me a lift into town?

A. give B. get C. do D. make

Question 18: I think we’ve come in for a lot of about the impatience of some shop assistants.

A. compliments B. problems C. complaints D. criticism

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 19: No vehicle weighing over 3.5 tons is allowed on this bridge, according to traffic signs placed at both ends of the structure.

A. corruption B. construction C. connection D. confusion

Question 20: When we were children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart. A. became less hospitable B. became less generous

C. became less friendly D. became less serious

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 21: The police have concluded tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bomb.

A. differently B. hesitantly C. certainly D. temporarily

Question 22: The Ministry of Education and training of Vietnam has declared a decree on the new educational program paving the way for foreign educational co-operation and investment.

A. initiating B. creating C. ending D. forming

Question 23: Mai and Lan are talking about Mai’s new house.

- Lan: “What a lovely house you have!”

- Mai: “ ”

A. I’m glad you like it. Thanks. B. Thanks. It must be very expensive.

C. You’re welcome. D. Yes, I don’t think so!

Question 24: Lora is talking to Maria about her failure at applying for a job.

- Lora: “ ”

- Maria: “Never mind, better luck next time”

A. I have a lot on my mind. B. I’ve broken your precious vase.

C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position.

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29

It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be aware of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (25) to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive effect on your work. If someone says you’re totally (26) in talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If,(27) , someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you should consider their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work. There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it (28) . Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (29) well if you persevere and stay positive.

Question 25: A. thought B. mind C. idea D. brain

Question 26: A. interesting B. missing C. lacking D. shortening

Question 27: A. hence B. however C. whereas D. otherwise

Question 28: A. publishes B. published C. to publish D. publish

Question 29: A. deal with B. turn out C. sail through D. come into

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the following questions 30 to 34

Marriage nowadays is a choice people make on their own, but this has not always been the case in society. Thousands of years ago, the average lifespan was shorter than it is today. A man usually lived until he was about 40 years old, while women died even sooner because of childbirth. There were many wars and illnesses, and people had to protect themselves by having more children while they were still young. The parents lived through their children.

Marriage was not so much a romantic love story but a business transaction, or deal. Most marriages were arranged between parents while their children were still very young. It was the custom that the fathers made the decision on whom their children were going to marry. The mothers had little say in it since they rarely made any decisions outside the household. The fathers would meet to arrange the wedding date and the money given for the bride on her wedding date. The more money and land a girl had, the more chances she had to marry well. Therefore, it was important that her father choose the bridegroom very well. Usually, it was someone who came from a good family or who was rich too. It was very unlikely that people married outside their social class. A few well-off and rich merchants got to marry poorer noblewomen and became King’s business advisors. In a way, poor peasants had an easier choice as it was less important whom they married.

The practice of arranged marriage is still common in some countries in the Middle East, such as India or Pakistan. Here, social classes are still strongly divided and very well-kept. Often, however, arranged marriages are a sign that people do not want to let go of the past, which gives them comfort and security in an ever-changing world.

(Adapted from Longman Essence Reading, Vol. 2)

Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Marriage as a business transaction today. B. Mothers' roles in their children's marriage.

C. Marriage practices in modern society. D. The practice of arranged marriage.

Question 31: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. the average lifespan B. a choice C. society D. marriage

Question 32: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT .

A. People tended to marry outside their social class

B. Men made almost all decisions inside the family

C. Marriage used to be a deal between two families

D. The wedding date was decided by the fathers

Question 33: The word "bridegroom" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. bridesmaid B. bride C. son-in-law D. daughter-in-law

Question 34: The phrase "let go of" in paragraph 3 mostly means ________ .

A. give up B. turn off C. save up D. give in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Advertising helps people recognize a particular brand, persuades them to try it, and tries to keep them loyal to it. Brand loyalty is perhaps the most important goal of consumer advertising. Whether they produce cars, canned foods or cosmetics, manufacturers want their customers to make repeated purchases. The quality of the product will encourage this, of course, but so, too, will affect advertising.

Advertising relies on the techniques of market research to identify potential users of a product. Are they homemakers or professional people? Are they young or old? Are they city dwellers or country dwellers? Such questions have a bearing on where and when ads should be placed. By studying readership breakdowns for newspapers and magazines as well as television ratings and other statistics, an advertising agency can decide on the best way of reaching potential buyers. Detailed research and marketing expertise are essential today when advertising budgets can run into thousands of millions of dollars.

Advertising is a fast-paced, high-pressure industry. There is a constant need for creative ideas that will establish a personality for a product in the public's mind. Current developments in advertising increase the need for talented workers.

In the past, the majority of advertising was aimed at the traditional white family - breadwinner father, non- working mother, and two children. Research now reveals that only about 6 percent of American households fit this stereotype. Instead, society is fragmented into many groups, with working mothers, single people and older people on the rise. To be most successful, advertising must identify a particular segment and aim its message toward that group.

Advertising is also making use of new technologies. Computer graphics are used to grab the attention of consumers and to help them see products in a new light. The use of computer graphics in a commercial for canned goods, for instance, gave a new image to the tin can.

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How to develop a successful advertising plan.

B. New techniques and technologies of market research.

C. The central role of advertising in selling products.

D. The history of advertising in the United States.

Question 36: The word "this" in bold type in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. the quality of the product B. effective advertising

C. repeatedly buying the same brand D. the most important goal

Question 37: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that advertisers must .

A. encourage people to try new products

B. aim their message at homemakers and professional people

C. know about the people who will buy the product

D. place several ads in newspapers and magazines

Question 38: According to paragraph 2, market research includes .

A. studying television ratings.

B. hiring researchers with backgrounds in many fields.

C. searching for talented workers.

D. determining the price of a product.

Question 39: The author implies that the advertising industry requires_______ .

A. millions of dollars B. a college-educated work force

C. innovative thinking D. government regulation

Question 40: According to the passage, most advertising used to be directed at .

A. working mothers with children B. two-parent families with children

C. unmarried people D. older adults

Question 41: The phrase "in a new light" in bold type in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to_______

A. differently B. with the use of color enhancement

C. more distinctly D. in a more energy-efficient way

Question 42: Where in the passage does the author give an example of a new development in advertising?

A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 5 D. Paragraph 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Mr. Ha is very interested in working as a teacher because he enjoy

A B C

teaching children.

D

Question 44: Her fiancé is said to graduate from Harvard University five years ago.

A B C D

Question 45: Historically, it was the 3rd Asian Games in Japan that tennis,

A B C

volleyball, table tennis and hockey were added.

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: David last visited Paris five years ago.

A. David has been in Paris for five years. B. David hasn't visited Paris for five years.

C. David didn't visit Paris five years ago. D. David was in Paris for five years.

Question 47: “How long have you been in this job?” She asked him.

A. She asked him how long he has been in that job.

B. She asked him how long has he been in that job.

C. She asked him how long he had been in that job.

D. She asked him how long had he been in that job

Question 48: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman.

C. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions.

Question 49: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.

A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.

B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.

C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.

D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.

Question 50: My sisters used to get on with each other. Now they hardly speak.

A. My sisters were once close, but they rarely speak to each other now.

B. My sisters do not speak to each other much, but they’re good friends.

C. My sisters rarely speak because they have never liked each other.

D. Because they have never got on, my sisters do not speak to each other.

==The end==

Đáp án

1-B

2-D

3-A

4-C

5-A

6-B

7-A

8A

9-C

10-D

11-B

12-A

13-B

14-A

15-D

16-D

17-A

18-C

19-B

20-C

21-C

22-C

23-A

24-D

25-B

26-C

27-B

28-B

29-B

30-D

31-A

32-A

33-C

34-A

35-C

36-C

37-C

38-A

39-C

40-B

41-A

42-C

43-C

44-C

45-B

46-B

47-C

48-A

49-D

50-A

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 38

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.

Question 1: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate

Question 2: A. booked B. missed C. described D. pronounced

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4

Question 3: A. engineer B. understand C. referee D. mechanic

Question 4: A. oceanic B. environment C. reality D. psychologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 5 to 16

Question 5: My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work I ________last week.

A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done

Question 6: The boy _________went to the hospital to ask for doctor's help.

A. whose sick sister B. whose sister sicked C. who his sister is sick D. whose sister was sick

Question 7:__________the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment.

A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before

Question 8: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack him.

A. therefore B. although C. unless D. despite

Question 9: He was pleased that things were going on _______.

A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfactory

Question 10: Had I not stayed up late last night, I_________ tired now.

A. wouldn’t be B. won’t be. C. can’t be. D. wouldn’t have been

Question 11: More and more investors are pouring _______ money into food and beverage start-ups.

A. the B. a C. an D. Ø

Question 12: I will not be here next week. I am going to be__________business in Mexico.

A. about B. in C. on D. at

Question 13: You have to move this box to __________ the new television set.

A. lose touch with B. make room for C. pay attention to D. take notice of

Question 14: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.

A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. may not

Question 15: The singer was _______________ on the piano by her sister.

A. discarded B. accompanied C. performed D. played

Question 16: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment..

A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.

A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested

Question 18. Fortunately, no one was injured in the accident as the motorist crashed into a stationary van.

A. damaged B. loaded C. large D. moving

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex.

A. openly criticized B. publicly supported C. rightly claimed D. publicly said

Question 20: Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.

A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 21: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from Canada, are planning to attend the firework display in Da Nang, Vietnam. A B C D

Question 22: They are having their house being painted by a construction company.

A B C D

Question 23: Water polo is a game in which is played in the water by two teams, each with seven players.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions.

Question 24: Kate visited David’s house. Seeing David feeding the cats , She said:

- Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” - David: “ ____________”

A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so

C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too

Question 25. Two students are talking about gender equality.

Duong: "From my point of view, husbands and wives should share the household chores equally."

Mai: "__________________."

A. There's no doubt about it B. It's a breathtaking view

C. But you're right D. You lied to me

Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

There are several key technologies which will, without doubt, (26)_______ the nature of work in the twenty first century, one of which is virtual reality. Appealing to several of your senses at once, this marvel of science presents images that respond instantaneously (27)_______ your movements. It allows people to behave as if they were somewhere completely different; this could be a place which existed hundreds of years ago, or a completely fictional one. At present, you need to wear bizarre-looking goggles to receive the images. (28)_______, as computers become smarter these will be replaced by more lightweight ones, which will be able to superimpose synthesized images onto the real world.

As software evolves, complex systems may be simplified into models which are (29)_______ longer beyond human comprehension. New ranks of specialists will clearly be needed to enable both expert (30)_______ amateur alike to access such applications. Clearly, the job opportunities this created for those trained in virtual reality will be immense.

(Adapted from New Proficiency Reading - Longman Exam Skills - Mary Stephens)

Question 26. A. effect B. account for C. affect D. influence on

Question 27. A. on B. for C. with D. to

Question 28. A. Besides B. Although C. However D. Therefore

Question 29. A. much B. any C. not D. no

Question 30. A. also B. and C. as well D. or

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

People are often surprised to learn just how long some varieties of trees can live. If asked to estimate the age of the oldest living trees on Earth, they often come up with guesses in the neighborhood of two or perhaps three hundred years. The real answer is considerably larger than that, more than five thousand years.

The tree that wins the prize for its considerable maturity is the bristlecone pine of California. This venerable pine predates wonders of the ancient world such as the pyramids of Egypt, the Hanging Gardens of Babylon, and the Colossus of Rhodes. It is not nearly as tall as the giant redwood that is also found in California, and in fact it is actually not very tall compared with many other trees, often little more than five meters in height. This relatively short height may be one of the factors that aid the bristlecone pine living to a ripe old age-high winds and inclement weather cannot easily reach the shorter trees and cause damage. An additional factor that contributes to the long life of the bristlecone pine is that this type of tree has a high percentage of resin, which prevents rot from developing in the tree trunk and branches.

(TOEFL Reading)

Question 31. What is the best title for the reading passage?

A. The wonders of the ancient world B. Three-hundred-year-old-forests

C. The size of the bristlecone pine D. An amazingly enduring tree

Question 32. The expression "in the neighborhood of" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____.

A. on the same block as B. of approximately C. located close to D. with the friendliness of

Question 33. It can be inferred from the passage that most people______.

A. are quite accurate in their estimates of the ages of trees

B. do not really have any idea how old the oldest trees on Earth are

C. have two to three hundred trees in their neighborhoods

D. can name some three-hundred-year-old-trees

Question 34. According to the passage, approximately how old are the oldest living trees on Earth?

A. Three hundred thousand years old B. Five hundred years old

C. Two hundred years old D. Five thousand years old

Question 35. The word "venerable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. unrecognizable B. incredible C. towering D. ancient

Question 36. The author mentions the Egyptian pyramids as an example of something that is____.

A. extremely tall B. believed to be strong C. known to be old D. far away

Question 37. Which of the following is true about the bristlecone pine?

A. It can be two to three hundred feet tall. B. It is never more than five meters in height.

C. It is as tall as the great pyramids. D. It is short in comparison to many other trees.

Question 38. The passage states that resin____.

A. is found only in the bristlecone pine B. helps stop rot from starting

C. assists the tree trunks to develop D. flows from the branches to the tree trunk

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated with tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.

An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet’s dominants, most-distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth’s surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth’s surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.

The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world’s rain forests does not seem surprising, considering the huge number of insects that comprise the bulk of the species. One scientist found many different species of ants in just one tree from a rain forest. While every species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup constrains them to be insects and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories such as phyla and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some representation there.To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think small. Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the order of 100 to 100,000 bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and much more.

(Source: “Practice Exercises for the TOEFL: Test of English as a Foreign Language”, Barron’s online bookstore Amazon.com)

39. The word “there” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. the Earth’s surface B. the sea C. a tree D. the rain forests

40. The word “bias” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. prejudice B. concern C. disadvantage D. attitude

41. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?

A. Ocean life is highly adaptive.

B. More attention needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.

C. Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.

D. The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants

42. Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs?

A. They are approximately the same size. B. Both have many different forms of life.

C. They share many similar species. D. Most of their inhabitants require water.

43. The passage suggests that most rain forest species are ______.

A. birds B. bacteria C. mammals D. insects

44. Which of the following is true about the ocean according to the passage?

A. It’s 100 times greater than land. B. It contains more species than land.

C. It contains a vast majority of life on Earth. D. It occupies one-third of the Earth’s surface.

45. The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the rain forests because _____.

A. there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions

B. marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate

C. more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea

D. many insect species are too small to divide into categories

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.

A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.

B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the President.

C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.

D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.

Question 47. You must never take your helmet off while you are riding a motorcycle.

A. When you are riding a motorcycle, wearing a helmet is not a must.

B. You needn't wear a helmet whenever you are riding a motorcycle.

C. Helmets must be worn at all times when you are riding a motorcycle.

D. If you are riding a motorcycle, you needn't wear a helmet.'

Question 48: People are not allowed to photograph the interior of the palace.

A. Taking photograph inside the palace is strictly forbidden

B. It’s not advisable to try to bring a camera into the palace

C. We were only able to take photos of the palace exterior

D. No one has ever taken a photo inside the palace

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. My brother tried very hard to past the driving test. He could hardly pass it.

A. No matter how hard my brother tried, he could hardly pass the driving test.

B. Although my brother didn’t try hard to past the driving test, he could pass it.

C. Despite being able to pass the driving test, my brother didn’t pass it.

D. My brother tried very hard, so he passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 50 Ann jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

A. Ann jogs every morning and it is very good for her health.

B. Ann jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.

C. Ann jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.

D. Ann jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

D

Question 2

C

Question 3

D

Question 4

A

Question 5

A

Question 6

D

Question 7

C

Question 8

B

Question 9

B

Question 10

A

Question 11

D

Question 12

C

Question 13

B

Question 14

A

Question 15

B

Question 16

B

Question 17

B

Question 18

D

Question 19

B

Question 20

A

Question 21

C

Question 22

C

Question 23

A

Question 24

B

Question 25

A

Question 26

C

Question 27

D

Question 28

C

Question 29

D

Question 30

B

Question 31

D

Question 32

B

Question 33

B

Question 34

D

Question 35

D

Question 36

C

Question 37

D

Question 38

B

Question 39

B

Question 40

A

Question 41

B

Question 42

B

Question 43

D

Question 44

C

Question 45

C

Question 46

D

Question 47

C

Question 48

A

Question 49

A

Question 50

B

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 39

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. appeared B. liked C. coughed D. laughed

2. A. wear B. dream C. mean D. treat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. simply B. common C. across D. brother

4. A. university B. technology C. application D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. Lots of houses _______ by the earthquake.

A. were destroying B. are destroying C. were destroyed D. destroyed

6. If my client _______ me her fax number, I _______ to post a letter to her.

A. had given / wouldn't have had B. had given / will not have had

C. will give / do not have D. gave,/ will not have

7. Miss Linda speaks _______ Chinese very well although she is from _______ UK.

A. the/ an B. the/ O C. O/ the D. a/ O

8. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _______ it was made in the 1990s.

A. because B. or C. however D. although

9. She looked _______ to see who was going_______ her .

A. for/ with B. up/ off C. at / to D. round/ after

10. Not until__________ home__________ that he had taken someone else's bike.

A. he got/ he realized B. he got/ he did realize C. he got/ did he realize D. did he get/ he realized

11. Alan and Susie _______ an argument. They're not speaking to each other.

A. must have B. must have had C. can have D. might have

12. __________ that she burst into tears.

A. Such her anger B. She was so angry C. So angry she was D. Her angry was so

13. Jane really loves the _______, jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.

A. nice wooden brown B. nice brown wooden C. wooden brown nice D. brown wooden nice

14. A letter of _______ is sometimes really necessary for you in a job interview.

A. recommendation B. recommender C. recommend D. recommended

15. Qualifications and _______ are two most important factors that help you get a good job.

A. attention B. politeness C. impression D. experience

16. Many young people have objected to _______ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. agreed B. sacrificed C. shared D. contractual

17. After a nature disaster, there is always an _______need for food and water.

A. urge B. urgently C. urgent D. urgency

18. _______ is used to describe the work of a person whose job is to treat sick or injured animals, or to describe the medical treatment of animals.

A. Pharmacy B. Veterinary C. Medicine D. Chemistry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

19. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.

~ Mr Smith "Could you bring me some water?" ~ Waiter: "_______"

A. No, thanks. B. I'm afraid not. C. Of course you can. D. Certainly, sir.

20. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.

~ Mary: "What a lovely house you have" ~ John: "_______"

A. No problem. B. Thanks. Hope you will drop in.

C. Of course, thanks. D. I think so.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.

A. superior B. beneficial C. mandatory D. constructive

22. Chimpanzees are frequently used as stand-ins for human beings in experiments.

A. partners B. stand-bys C. substitutes D. models

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

23. He always bends the truth.

A. says something that is not completely true B. says something that is completely true

C. tells a lie D. doesn't tell the truth

24. Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.

A. impoverished B. privileged C. well- off D. wealthy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

25. Her husband asked her son what did he want for his birthday.

A B C D

26. Teachers often use eye contact in the classroom to decide who is prepared to answer a question, or that didn't

A B C D

complete his homework assignment.

27. The number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to save endangered species from

A B C D

extinction.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 32.

Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday activities as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized training they may need to (28)_______ for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (29)_______ or certificate before he can practise law or medicine. Many fields, such as computer operation (30)_______ police work, require satisfactory completion of special training courses.

Education is also important (31)_______ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable . Such education becomes (32)_______ important as people gain more and more leisure time.

(Source: Lively Reading)

28. A. work B. make C. do D. prepare

29. A. card B. paper C. license D. diploma

30. A. or B. or else C. otherwise D. because of

31. A. therefore B. because C. although D. however

32. A. seriously B. increasingly C. excessively D. vitally

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the "Oscars", celebrate the best films and documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special effects. This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business by storm, as she competes for the best actress award for her role as „Hushpuppy' in the film "Beasts of the Southern Wild".

The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences is made up of filmmakers in all fields. The group ranks their favorites in each category. Oftentimes Oscar recognition can take many years, but for some lucky and talented individuals that honor comes early in life.

Newcomer Quvenzhané Wallis (pronounced Kwe-VEN-zhah-nay) portrayed "Hushpuppy", a young girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community prone to devastating flooding. In the film, Wallis learns to find food in the wilderness, escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father. She will be the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category at nine years old.

Born in Houma, LA., Quvenzhané was just five years old when she auditioned for Beasts of the Southern Wild. Since auditions for the role of Hushpuppy were only open to 6-9 year olds, Quvenzhané's mother lied on the initial paperwork to allow her daughter to audition. When director Benh Zeitlin saw her audition however, he immediately recognized her as the best pick for this strong and independent young character.

33. Which of the following is NOT celebrated by the Academy Awards?

A. cartoons B. films C. documentaries D. news

34. Which of the following best describe Quvenzhané Wallis according to the passage?

A. She is the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category for the Oscars.

B. She has won the best actress Oscars award for her role in "Hushpuppy".

C. She escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father.

D. She is a young girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community.

35. The phrase "that honor" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. award B. lucky and talented individuals

C. Oscars recognition D. favorites

36. Which of the following best paraphrases the clause "who have taken the movie business by storm" in the reading?

A. who have been particularly successful in the movie business

B. who have earned their living in the movie business

C. who have made huge profits in the movie business

D. who have recovered from a difficult period in the movie business

37. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. Youngest Ever Nominee for the Oscars B. Young Actors Achieve Big for the Oscars

C. A Young Actress makes it to the Oscars D. Little Lady Nominees for the Oscars

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed that women, too, had been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male counterparts. In doing so they enlarged the traditional bounds of a women's world, won for their sex a new sense of competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to the progress of aviation.

But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." The famed aviator Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to do an efficient job." Indeed old attitudes died hard: when Charles Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union in 1938 with his wife, Anne-herself a pilot and gifted proponent of aviation - he was astonished to discover both men and women flying in the Soviet Air Force.

Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up - to - date equipment they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete, and often they triumphed finally despite the odds.

Ruth Law, whose 590 - mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new nonstop distance record in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any woman who wanted to fly. And when she addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her plainspoken wordstestified to a universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight was done with no expectation of reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment."

38. What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in 1938?

A. It had no women pilots. B. It gave pilots handsome salaries.

C. It had old planes that were in need of repair. D. It could not be trusted to do an efficient job.

39. The word 'counterparts' refers to ________.

A. passengers B. skills C. hazards D. pilots

40. In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in ______.

A. addressing clubs B. setting records C. flying nonstop D. raising money

41. The word 'skepticism' is closest in meaning to _______.

A. doubt B. surprise C. hatred D. support

42. According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of reward?

A. Charles Lindbergh B. Anne Lindbergh C. Ruth Law D. Amelia Earhart

43. According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following EXCEPT___.

A. winning universal recognition from men B. challenging the conventional role of women

C. building the confidence of women D. contributing to the science of aviation

44. The word 'addressed' can be best replaced by ________.

A. consulted B. came back to C. spoke to D. mailed

45. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. Women Spectators B. A Long Flight

C. Dangers Faced by Pilots D. Women in Aviation History

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

46. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.

B. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

C. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.

D. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

47. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. Without his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book.

B. If it weren't for his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book.

C. But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book.

D. If only he had been able to finish his book.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

48. She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

A. She hadn't begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting .

C. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

D. She had hardly begun to speak when people started interrupting.

49. I' m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.

A. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam

B. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam

D. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

50. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.

A. If his parents hadn't supported him, he would have been successful in his career.

B. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

C. Had his parents supported him, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

D. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ LỜI GIẢI

01. A 02. A 03. C 04. C 05. C 06. A 07. C 08. D 09. D 10. C 11. B

12. C _ Câu đảo ngữ: S + V + so + adj + that + S + V .... = So + adj + S + V + that + S + V ...

13. B 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. C

22. C

Giải thích:

stand-ins (n) sự thay thế

- partners: cộng sự

- models: người mẫu

- stand-bys: dự trữ

- substitutes: sự thay thế

Dịch nghĩa. Vượn thường dược sư dụng như là đối tượng thay thế cho con người trong các thí nghiệm.

23. B

Giải thích: bend the truth: bẻ cong sự thật

- says something that is completely true: nói hoàn toàn sự thật

- tells a lie: nói dối

- doesn't tell the truth: không nói thật

- says something that is not completely true: nói điều gì đó không hoàn toàn đúng

Dịch nghĩa: Anh ta luôn luôn bóp méo sự thật.

24. A 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. D 29. C

30. A

Or : hoặc, hoặc là / nếu không thì

Or else: nếu không thì

Trong trường hợp này ta dùng nghĩa “ hoặc là”

31. B

32. B

33. D

Giải thích:

Hạng mục nào KHÔNG được đưa vào Giải thưởng Viện Hàn lâm?

Thông tin: Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the “Oscars”, celebrate the best films and documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special effects.

Tạm dịch: Mỗi năm, Giải thưởng Viện Hàn lâm, được biết đến nhiều hơn với tên gọi “Oscar”, tôn vinh những bộ phim và phim tài liệu hay nhất với các thể loại từ diễn xuất, đạo diễn và biên kịch, đến trang phục và hiệu ứng đặc biệt.

→ Chọn D

34. A

Giải thích:

Theo đoạn văn điều nào sau đây mô tả đúng nhất về Quvenzhané Wallis?

Thông tin: She will be the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category at nine years old.

Tạm dịch: Cô ấy sẽ là ứng cử viên trẻ nhất từng được đề cử ở hạng mục nữ diễn viên xuất sắc nhất lúc chín tuổi.

→ Chọn A

35. C

Giải thích:

Cụm từ “sự vinh dự đó” ở đoạn 2 nhắc tới _______.

Thông tin: Oftentimes Oscar recognition can take many years, but for some lucky and talented individuals that honor comes early in life.

Tạm dịch: Thường thì việc nhận được giải Oscar có thể mất nhiều năm, nhưng đối với một số cá nhân may mắn và tài năng, sự vinh dự này xuất hiện sớm trong cuộc đời họ.

→ Chọn C

36. A

Giải thích:

Điều nào sau đây diễn giải đúng nhất về cụm từ “những người gây bão trong lĩnh vực kinh doanh điện ảnh” trong bài đọc?

Thông tin: This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business by storm, as she competes for the best actress award for her role as „Hushpuppy’ in the film “Beasts of the Southern Wild”.

Tạm dịch: Năm nay, Quvenzhané Wallis, 9 tuổi, gia nhập danh sách những đứa trẻ đã gây bão trong lĩnh vực kinh doanh điện ảnh, khi cô bé cạnh tranh giải thưởng nữ diễn viên xuất sắc nhất cho vai diễn Hushpuppy, trong bộ phim “Beasts of the Southern Wild”.

→ Chọn A

37. C

Giải thích:

Điều nào sau đây là tiêu đề phù hợp nhất cho đoạn văn này?

Thông tin: Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the “Oscars”, celebrate the best films and documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special effects. This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business by storm, as she competes for the best actress award for her role as “Hushpuppy” in the film “Beasts of the Southern Wild”.

Tạm dịch: Mỗi năm, Giải thưởng Viện Hàn lâm, được biết đến nhiều hơn với tên gọi “Oscar”, tôn vinh những bộ phim và phim tài liệu hay nhất với các thể loại từ diễn xuất, đạo diễn và biên kịch, đến trang phục và hiệu ứng đặc biệt. Năm nay, Quvenzhané Wallis, 9 tuổi, gia nhập danh sách những đứa trẻ đã gây bão trong lĩnh vực kinh doanh điện ảnh, khi cô bé cạnh tranh giải thưởng nữ diễn viên xuất sắc nhất cho vai diễn Hushpuppy, trong bộ phim “Beasts of the Southern Wild”.

Bài viết chủ yếu nói về nữ diễn viên trẻ Quvenzhané Wallis, được để cử giải Oscar ở hạng mục nữ diễn viên xuất sắc nhất.

→ Chọn C

38. A

Giải thích:

Điều gì có thể được suy ra từ đoạn văn về Không quân Hoa Kỳ năm 1938?

Thông tin: he was astonished to discover both men and women flying in the Soviet Air Force.

Tạm dịch: anh ta đã rất ngạc nhiên khi phát hiện ra cả đàn ông và phụ nữ bay trong Không quân Liên Xô.

Chọn A

39. D

Giải thích:

Từ “counterparts” nói tới____.

Thông tin: From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male counterparts.

Tạm dịch: Từ những khán giả đơn thuần, họ trở thành những hành khách sẵn sàng và cuối cùng là phi công theo ý mình, âm mưu kỹ năng và đường lối táo bạo chống lại những mối nguy hiểm của không khí và sự hoài nghi của các đồng nghiệp nam.

Chọn D

40. D

Giải thích:

Trong nỗ lực cạnh tranh với nam giới, các nữ phi công sớm gặp khó khăn trong ______.

Thông tin: Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up – to – date equipment they needed to compete on an equal basis with men.

Tạm dịch: Sự khôn ngoan thông thường như vậy khiến phụ nữ gặp khó khăn trong việc quyên tiền cho các thiết bị hiện đại mà họ cần để cạnh tranh trên cơ sở bình đẳng với nam giới.

Chọn D

41. A

Giải thích:

Từ “skepticism” gần nghĩa nhất với?

=> skepticism = doubt

Thông tin: From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male counterparts.

Tạm dịch: Từ những khán giả đơn thuần, họ trở thành những hành khách sẵn sàng và cuối cùng là phi công theo ý mình, âm mưu kỹ năng và đường lối táo bạo chống lại những mối nguy hiểm của không khí và sự hoài nghi của các đồng nghiệp nam.

Chọn A

42. C

Theo đoạn văn, ai nói rằng bay được thực hiện mà không mong đợi phần thưởng?

Thông tin: "My flight was done with no expectation of reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment."

Tạm dịch: "Chuyến bay của tôi đã được thực hiện mà không mong đợi phần thưởng", cô tuyên bố, "hoàn toàn chỉ vì tình yêu thành tựu. "

Chọn C

43. A

Giải thích:

Theo đoạn văn, phi công nữ đã thành công trong tất cả các NGOẠI TRỪ ___ sau đây.

Thông tin: But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." The famed aviator Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to do an efficient job."

Tạm dịch: Nhưng công nhận khả năng của họ đã không đến dễ dàng. "Đàn ông không tin chúng tôi có khả năng." Người phi công nổi tiếng Amelia Earhart từng nhận xét với một người bạn. "Bởi vì chúng tôi là phụ nữ, hiếm khi chúng tôi tin tưởng để làm một công việc hiệu quả."

Chọn A

44. C

Giải thích:

Từ “addressed” có thể thay thế bởi?

Thông tin: And when she addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her plainspoken words testified to a universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender:

Tạm dịch: Và khi cô nói với Câu lạc bộ Hàng không Mỹ sau khi hoàn thành hành trình lịch sử của mình, những lời nói suông của cô đã chứng minh cho một động lực phổ quát của con người không bị ảnh hưởng bởi giới tính:

Chọn C

45. D

Giải thích:

Câu nào sau đây là tiêu đề tốt nhất cho đoạn văn này?

Chọn D

46. A _ Adj + as/though + S + to be/verb…: dùng để nhấn mạnh vào tính chất (adj) của danh từ

47. A

48. B

49. D

50. D _ But for + Noun/ Noun phrase ...., ..... . = If ... not ...

www.thuvienhoclieu.com

ĐỀ 40

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Câu 1: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Without your help, I………..the technical problem with my computer the other day.

A. wouldn’t solve B. couldn’t have solved C. could solve D. can’t solve

Câu 2: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

……….the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going there by train.

A. Discovering B. To discover C. To have discovered D. Discovered

Câu 3: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of……..devices.

A. environment-friendly B. pollution-free C. time-consuming D. labor-saving

Câu 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.

Michael is incapable of keeping his mind engaged in the lesson.

A. Michael finds the lesson incapable to be engaged in.

B. Michael is impossible to concentrate on the lesson.

C. It’s impossible for Michael to focus on the lesson.

D. The lesson is not engaged enough for Michael.

Câu 5: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Donald Trump is……...president of………….United States.

A. the/ an B. the/ the C. a / ∅ D. the / ∅

Câu 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following question.

I’m sorry I can’t go out with you. I’m up to my ears in work.

A. having a earache B. idle C. busy D. concentrating on

Câu 7: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Some snakes lay eggs, but……….give birth to live offspring.

A. the others B. others C. the other D. other

Câu 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

He talks continuously with his friends about his achievements. He’s kind of person who is

always blowing his own horn.

A. modest B. trying his best C. active D. showing off

Câu 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following question.

Mrs. Ratchet is very kind, always giving open-handed assistance to the needy.

A. kind B. useful C. mean D. generous

Câu 10: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following question.

I didn’t arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.

A. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her. B. I was not early enough to see her off.

C. She had left because I was not on time. D. I didn’t go there , so I could not see her off.

Câu 11: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.

The first postage stamps issued in New York City in 1842.

A B C D

A. in B. The first C. stamps D. issued

Câu 12: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.

A. national B. constructive C. essential D. commercial

Câu 13: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange.

Paul and Mary have been dating for two weeks and he is asking her to go out for dinner.

- Paul: "Would you like to have dinner with me?" - Mary: “______”

A. I'm very happy. B. Yes, so do I. C. Yes, I'd love to. D. Yes, it is.

Câu 14: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

They'll be able to walk across the river……..

A. when the ice will be thick enough B. if the ice will be thick enough

C. if the ice is thick enough D. unless the ice is thick enough

Câu 15: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.

A. government B. leadership C. telephone D. appearance

Câu 16: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.

The president said it was imperative that the release of all hostages was secured.

A B C D

A. the B. said C. of D. was

Câu 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.

She said her father that she would go shopping with him the following day.

A B C D

A. him B. that C. would go D. said

Câu 18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.

People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.

A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.

B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.

C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

Câu 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.

A. entertain B. envelop C. endanger D. encourage

Câu 20: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

I recommend that the student ……….his composition as soon as possible.

A. finished writing B. should finish the writing C. finishes writing D. finish writing

Câu 21: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

If you are not Japanese, so what ……….are you?

A. nationalized B. national C. nation D. nationality

Câu 22: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.

A. species B. invent C. tennis D. medicine

Câu 23: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to…….the household chores.

A. make B. do C. run D. take

Câu 24: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

There have been more than 200 students …….. scholarship from this educational organization so far.

A. to be won B. won C. winning D. to win

Câu 25: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Since 1950 the world……….nearly one-fifth of the soil from its agricultural land and one-fifth of its tropical forests.

A. has lost B. was losing C. had been lost D. lost

Câu 26: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

I hope you……….the point of everything your mother and I do for you.

A. see B. annoy C. have D. take

Câu 27: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange.

Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.

-Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."

-Jimmy: "………. . There are successful people without a degree."

A. I don't quite agree B. That's all right C. That's life D. I can't agree more

Câu 28: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Jack found it hard to…….the loss of his little dog.

A. get over B. put off C. get along D. turn over

Câu 29: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.

"I'm sorry. I didn't do the homework." said the boy.

A. The boy denied not doing the homework.

B. The boy admitted not doing the homework.

C. The boy refused to do the homework.

D. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn't do the homework.

Câu 30: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

Despite her cries, no one came to her assistance.

A. help B. belief C. suggestion D. hindrance

Câu 31: Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in the following question.

Granny is completely deaf. You will have to……. allowances for her.

A. give B. find C. bring D. make

Câu 32: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following question.

We spent about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.

A. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep

B. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.

C. We know relatively little about sleep, as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.

D. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.

Read the following passage carefully and mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 33 to 40.

NOISE POLLUTION

The word "noise" is derived from the Latin word "nausea," meaning seasickness. Noise is among the most pervasive pollutants today. Noise pollution can broadly be defined as unwantesd or effensive sounds that unreasonably intrude into our daily activitives. Noise from road traffic, jet planes, barking dogs, garbage trucks, construction equipment, manufacturing processes, lawn mowers, leaf blowers, and boom boxes, to name a few, are among the audible litter that is routinely broadcast into the air.

One measure of pollution is the danger it poses to health. Noise negatively affects human health and well-being. Problems related to noise include hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, sleep loss, distraction and lost productivity. Noise polluyion also contribute to a general reduction in the quality of life and opportunities for tranquility.

We experience noise in a number of ways. On some occasions, we can be both the cause and the victim of noise, such as when we are operating noisy appliances or equipment. There are also instances when we experience noise generated by others just as people experience second-hand smoke. While in both instances, noise is equally damaging physically, second-hand noise is more troubling because it has negative impacts on us but is put into the environment by others, without our consent.

The air into which second-hand noise is emitted and on which it travels is a "commons". It belongs not to an individual person or group, but to everyone. People, businesses, and organizations, therefore, do not have unlimited rights to broadcast noise as they please, as if the effects of noise were limited only to their private property. Those that disregard the obligation to not interfere with others’ use and enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution are , in many ways, acting like a bully in a scholyard. Although they may do so unkowingly, they disregard the rights of others and claim for themselves rights that are not theirs.

The actual loudness of a sound is only one component of the negative effect noise pollution has on human beings. Other factors that have to be considered are the time and place, the duration, the source of the sound, and even the mood of the effect person. Most people wuold not be bothered by the sound of a 21-gun salute on a special occasion. On the other hand, the thump-thump of music coming the apartment downstairs at 2 a.m., even if barely audible, may be a major source of stress. The sound of the neigbour;s lawn mower may be unobjectionable on a summer afternoon, but if someone is hoping to sleep late on Sunday morning, the sound of a lawn mower starting up just after sunrise is a irritant.

(Source: The Complete Guide to the TOEFL Test by Bruce Rogers )

Câu 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem caused by noise ?

A. loss appetite B. sleeplessness C. distraction D. lost productivity

Câu 34: Secondhand noise and secondhand smoke are similar in that……………………

A. they are generated by others. B. they are equally damaging physically

C. they belong to everyone. D. we are both their cause and victim.

Câu 35: The word “which” in paragraph 4 refers to……………..

A. an individual B. a group C. noise D. air

Câu 36: The word “disregard” in paragraph 4is closest in meaning to………………….

A. disable B. ignore C. discount D. notice

Câu 37: Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the negative effects that noise pollution has on people ?

A. the time when the sound is heard. B. the volume of the sound.

C. the combination of one sound and another. D. the source of the sound.

Câu 38: The authority explains the concept of interfering with the others’ use and enjoyment of the commons by………….

A. explaining that sometimes this interference is intensional and sometimes unintentional.

B. giving examples of various forms of commons and of ways people interfere with them.

C. pointing out ways in which people, and organizations interfere with others’ rights.

D. comparing it to another common negative experience.

Câu 39: The author of the passage implies that secondhand noise pollution…………………..

A. make people both the cause and the victim of noise pollution.

B. is usually more annoying people because it is out of one’s control.

C. damages a person’s health as much as secondhand smoke.

D. is not as damaging physically as noise that one generates oneself.

Câu 40: In the last paragrath,the author mentions a 21-gun salute as an example of ………….

A. a type of noise pollution that can cause physical damage and fright.

B. a particularly irritating form of noise pollution.

C. a loud noise that most people tolerate on special occasion.

D. a noise that is much more annoying than soft music.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate thecorrect word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 41 to 45.

In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse (41 ) ……..three families live together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her baby daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do almost the housework. Pam looks after the shopping and (42 ) …….the repairs, and Alice takes care of the garden.

Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home (43 ) ……..computer systems, and Pam, who is a painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the three oldest ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.

The three families get (44 )……well, and enjoy their way of life. There are a few difficulties, of course. Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs some expensive repairs. But this isn't too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able to pay back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse (45 ) ­­­­…….move to a luxury flat in a big city.

Câu 41: A. in where B. that C. where D. Which

Câu 42: A. fulfils B. makes C. prepares D. does

Câu 43: A. who designs B. designing C. designs D. and design

Câu 44: A. In B. off C. on D. with

Câu 45: A. than B. therefore C. to D. then

Read the following passage carefully and mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.

One of the highest honors for journalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1917, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Emest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer. Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work, and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to the United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German – language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper.

In 1878, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a controversial approach to news. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Putlizer’s time it was new and different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer’s paper became very famous and is still produced today.

The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million dollars to Columbia University so that they could award prizes to great writers.

Câu 46: According to the reading passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?

A. most newspaper reporters. B. journalism students.

C. noted writers and composers. D. Columbia University graduates.

Câu 47: The word “partial” in the passage is closest in meaning to .

A. brand new B. very important C. in part only D. one and only

Câu 48: Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 2?

A. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.

B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.

C. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.

D. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.

Câu 49: Which sentence about the Pulitzer Prize is NOT true according to the reading passage?

A. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors of writers.

B. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.

C. Winning the prize is the highlight of a writer’s career.

D. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to win the prize in 1917.

Câu 50: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?

A. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals.

B. to encourage writers to remember the importance of quality.

C. to encourage people to remember his name and success.

D. to encourage people to appreciate the work of the Pulitzer winners.

-----------------------------------------------

----------- HẾT ----------

ĐÁP ÁN

Câu

ĐA

Câu

ĐA

Câu

ĐA

Câu

ĐA

Câu

ĐA

1

B

11

D

21

D

31

D

41

C

2

A

12

A

22

A

32

A

42

D

3

D

13

C

23

B

33

A

43

B

4

C

14

C

24

C

34

A

44

C

5

B

15

D

25

A

35

D

45

A

6

B

16

D

26

A

36

B

46

C

7

B

17

D

27

A

37

C

47

C

8

D

18

B

28

A

38

D

48

B

9

C

19

A

29

B

39

B

49

D

10

B

20

D

30

A

40

C

50

B

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ĐỀ 41

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. mountains. B. problems. C. moments. D. wonders.

Question 2. A. pasture B. mature C. pleasure D. structure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. appear B. version C. decide D. perhaps

Question 4. A. government B. employment C. refusal D. redundant

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. She has been playing ____________piano since she was 10 years of age.

A. a B. an C. the D. x (no article)

Question 6. If our teacher were here now, he _______ us with this difficult exercise.

A. will help. B. would help. C. has helped. D. helps.

Question 7. They were at the stadium with us last night, so they _______ at the theater then.

A. needn’t have been. B. might have been. C. should have been. D. can’t have been.

Question 8. Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, _____ they do not have thumbs.

A. nevertheless B. for C. despite D. although

Question 9. Americans account ______ 12% of the US population.

A. for B. with C. of D. on

Question 10. Only after the teacher _______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go ahead with the experiment.

A. was explaining. B. would explain. C. had explained. D. has explained.

Question 11. . ______________the destination, everyone felt a relief.

A. Reached B. Having been reached C. When reached D. On reaching

Question 12. The eyewitness said that she had seen _______ the scene of the crime.

A. leaving a tall man B. a tall man to leave C. a tall man leaving D. leave a tall man

Question 13. Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their _______ skills.

A. socially. B. socialize. C. social. D. society.

Question 14. ______ smart phones today is an essential part with teenagers. They can’t do anything without them.

A. Using B. Taking C. Getting D. Making

Question 15. A man ______ helping police with their interview.

A. was reported to have B. was reported to have been

C. reports to be D. reported to have been

Question 16. The Internet has enabled people to ______ with each other more quickly.

A. interconnect B. interlink C. interact D. intervene

Question 17. When preparing a CV, university_________ can consider attaching a separate report about official work experience during the course.

A. graduates B. leavers C. candidates D. applicants

Question 18. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I ________ it for mine.

A. expected B. confused C. mistook D. thought

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered species all over the world.

A. adapted. B. improved. C. rebuilt. D. introduced.

Question 20. Tim are leaving for Canada for good. He will never live in Britain again

A. permanently B. for a short time C. for better thing D. for a bright future

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical B. severe C. beneficial D. damaging

Question 22. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.

A. got nervous. B. became aggressive. C. stayed confident. D. had a fever.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. David and Tim are talking about natural resources: Tim agrees with what David says:

- David: our natural resources are going to be used up. I think we should find other alternative ones soon.

- Tim:________________________________

A. I’ll say. B. Are you kidding? C. No way! D. It’s out of the question!

Question 24. Peter is inviting Jane to have a little more coffee.

Peter: “Would you like a little more coffee?”

Jane: “______________.”

A. Yes, I’d love to B. Thanks, I’m not hungry C. Yes, please. D. You’re welcome.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week.

I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (25) ______ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (26) ______ to some benefits, including discounts.

When I eventually started, I was responsible (27) ______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (28) ______ got on our nerves. (29) ______, working there was a great experience which I will never forget.

Question 25: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel

Question 26: A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied

Question 27: A. for B. with C. in D. to

Question 28: A. which B. why C. when D. who

Question 29: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole

Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.

One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.

The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the number of readers increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.

Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some way mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialised readership on the other.

By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.

Question 30: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because .

A. few people could read to themselves

B. there were few places available for private reading

C. silent reading had not been discovered

D. people relied on reading for entertainment

Question 31: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “___ ”.

A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use C. most preferable D. widely used

Question 32: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of _______.

A. the decreasing need to read aloud B. the development of libraries

C. the increase in literacy D. the decreasing number of listeners

Question 33: It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading materials was an indication of _________.

A. a decline of standards of literacy B. a change in the readers’ interest

C. an improvement of printing techniques D. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes

Question 34: All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared literacy culture EXCEPT ______ .

A. the inappropriate reading skills B. the printed mass media

C. the diversity of reading materials D. the specialised readership

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42

The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.

Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the information enters the short-term memory.

Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.

Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.

Question 35: The best title for this passage would be __________.

A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory

B. How long it takes to memorize

C. The stages of human memory

D. Human phases

Question 36: The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to ____________.

A. The location in the brain

B. The period of time it takes to remember something

C. How the senses are involved in the memory.

D. How long the memory lasts.

Question 37: The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by __________.

A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of C. depends on D. is below

Question 38: According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?

A. Sensory memory B. Active memory

C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory

Question 39: According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?

A. For as long as twenty minutes B. As long as it is being used.

C. After you have repeated it many times. D. When it has moved into long-term memory.

Question 40: All of the following are TRUE about long - term memory EXCEPT that ________

A. it has a very large capacity.

B. it can hold information.

C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.

D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.

Question 41: The expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by

A. by itself B. in its own time C. with its D. in only one way

Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of « information for two days, this is probably _________.

A. three phases of memory B. the sensory memory

C. the short- term memory D. the long- term memory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Gilbert Newton Lewis, a chemist, helped to develop the modern electron theory of valence, a theory what explains the forces holding atoms together in molecules.

A. a B. develop C. what D. together

Question 44. There must be something wrong with him because he looks rather tiredly.

A. There B. something wrong C. with D. tiredly

Question 45. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one.

A. told B. got C. is looking for D. new one

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Murder is the most serious of all crimes.

A. Murder is very serious. B. No crime is more serious than murder.

C. Everyone is very afraid of murder. D. Murder is the dangerous crime.

Question 47: “Never borrow money from friends”, my father said.

A. My father advised me to borrow money from friends.

B. My father told me not to borrow money from friends.

C. My father suggested me that I should borrow money from friends.

D. My father advised me not to lend my friends money.

Question 48. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

A. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.

B. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

C. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.

D. You should persuade him to change his mind.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.

A. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.

B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don’t know she has artistic talent.

C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don’t know about her great performance at the festival.

D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn’t know about her artistic talent now.

Question 50. Mary knew how busy I was. She offered to help me.

A. Because Mary knew my business, she offered to help me.

B. Knowing how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.

C. Mary knew how I was busy and offered to help me.

D. Having known how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.

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ĐỀ 42

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thefollowing questions.

Question 01. A. incredible B. necessary C. endangered D. humidity

Question 02. A. depend B. maintain C. visit D. achieve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 03. We interviewed a number of candidates but none of them __________ us.

A. impressively B. impression C. impressed D. impressive

Question 04. She turned ________ his offer because she did not want to work too far away from home.

A. away B. down C. off D. out

Question 05. Let’s go out for a social gathering tonight, ________?

A. do we B. shall we C. shan’t we D. will we

Question 06. They________ all their assignments last night but they didn’t.

A. should finish B. must finish C. should have finished D. must have finished

Question 07. If more labour-saving devices are used in our home, the housework ________ a burden any more.

A. wouldn’t have been B. not be C. wouldn’t be D. won’t be

Question 08. By the end of this month, this language center________ more than two hundred students.

A. will have recruited B. will recruit C. had recruited D. has recruited

Question 09. Laura’s former teacher promised________ her wedding next week.

A. to attend B. attend C. to attending D. attending

Question 10. When volunteering in the Middle East, she unfortunately____ a rare disease.

A. treated B. contracted C. committed D. adopted

Question 11. Her parents insisted that she________ to medical university.

A. applying B. applied C. applies D. apply

Question 12. The speaker showed some______ photos to attract the audience’s attention.

A. far-reaching B. thought-provoking C. narrow-minded D. weather-beaten

Question 13.Only professionals can identify different ________ of natural light.

A. intensities B. extensions C. expansions D. Weights

Question 14. It gets_________ to understand what the professor has explained.

A. difficult more and more B. more difficult than

C. more and more difficult D. the more difficult

Question 15: A computer is a(n) ______ storage device which manages large collections of data.

A. electrical B. electronic C. electric D. electricity

Question 16: After the large income tax hike, many people suddenly found it difficult to ______ both ends meet.

A. take B. make C. do D. have

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. Mai and Nam are talking about the cell phone Nam has just bought.

- Mai: “________________.” - Nam: “Thank you. I’m glad you like it.”

A. Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone before

B. Can I borrow your cell phone, Nam?

C. Do you like your cell phone, Nam?

D. You have just bought a cell phone, don’t you?

Question 18. Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future.

- Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” - Joe: “___________.”

A. What for? There are quite a few around. B. I’m afraid I can’t.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers. D. I’m glad you like it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 19. It was not until he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.

A. No sooner had he realized how important regular practice was than he lost the game.

B. Only after he lost the game did he realize how important regular practice was.

C. Hardly had he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.

D. Not until did he lose the game he realized how important regular practice was.

Question 20. She has always had a good relationship with the children.

A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.

B. She hardly gets along well with the children.

C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.

D. She has always got on well with the children.

Question 21. “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!” the woman told her son.

A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.

C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on the table.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22. He may be shy now, but he’ll soon come out of his shell when he meets the right girl.

A. hole B. become confident C. shed D. become shy

Question 23. The only cure for alcoholism is complete abstinence from alcohol.

A. sickness B. pretension C. avoidance D. absence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 24. Most of the people recovered quickly. They were injured in the crash.

A. Most of the people injured in the crash recovered quickly.

B. Most of the people recovered quickly after the crash.

C. Most of the people who recovered quickly were injured in the crash.

D. The people who were injured in the crash, most of them recovered quickly.

Question 25. Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.

A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.

B. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.

C. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.

D. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 26.The lion has long been a symbol of strength, powerful and cruelty.

A. symbol B. strength C. long been D. powerful

Question 27. All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their sex, age, or nationality.

A. candidates B. nationality C. scholarship D. regarding

Question 28. The economy of Maine is based to a great extent in its forests, which cover 80 percent of its surface area.

A. in its B. economy of C. to a D. percent of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 29. It's discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.

A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude

Question 30. One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.

A. unaware B. supportive C. intolerant D. tired

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.

North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street" interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the new people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.

There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

Question 31. Which word is given definition in the text?

A. sampling B. poll C. survey D. interview

Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The principles of conducting surveys.

B. The importance of polls in American political life.

C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys.

D. The history of surveys in North America.

Question 33. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?

A. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results

B. Carefully worded questions

C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings

D. A high number of respondents

Question 34. The word "indispensable” is closest in meaning to __________.

A. necessary B. complicated C. expensive D. simple

Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionnaires is that _________.

A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires

B. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute

C. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions

D. questionnaires are often difficult to read

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake TonIe Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.

One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.

Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.

Question 36.  What is the passage mainly about?

A. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization.

B. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.

C. The essential role water plays in farming.

D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.

Question 37. The word “artificial” in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. numerous B. man-made C. natural D. insincere

Question 38. The word “decrepit” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.

A. beneficial B. incomplete C. deteriorated D. disorganized

Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. farmland B. temples and palaces C. rice paddies D. reservoirs and canals

Question 40. All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT _________.

A. contamination of soil B. erosion of soil

C. reduction of nutrients      D. loss of water supply

Question 41.  The passage preceding this passage most likely discusses_________.

A. religious practices of the people of Angkor

B. the other six wonders of the world

C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire

D. architecture of ancient Asian civilization

Question 42. Why does the author mention the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs?

A. They became non-functional due to overuse.

B. They supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean.

C. They were destroyed by nearby warrior tribes.

D. They helped transport the sandstones for constructing temples.

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire

________.

A. lost their food source due to excess rainfall

B. were intentionally starved by the farmers

C. depended upon rice as their main source of food

D. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits the numbered blanks from 44 to 48.

Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the household. Women were quite (44) _____ to their families. However, the public role of women has changed (45) _____ since the beginning of World War II.
During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a (46) ____, women were in complete control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple (47) _____. They began to take over the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force. Women were forced by economic realities to work in the factories. The women who worked there were (48) _____ low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories.

Question 44. A. fascinated B. worried C. dedicated D. interested
Question 45. A. unfortunately B. approximately C. nearly D. dramatically
Question 46. A. change B. result C. success D. opportunity
Question 47. A. duty B. job C. requirement D. career
Question 48. A. made B. paid C. created D. delivered

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49. A. trained B. performed C. proved D. walked

Question 50. A. handsome B. grandfather C. handkerchief D. handbook

ĐÁP ÁN

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thefollowing questions.

Question 01. A. incredible B. necessary C. endangered D. humidity

Question 02. A. depend B. maintain C. visit D. achieve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 03. We interviewed a number of candidates but none of them __________ us.

A. impressively B. impression C. impressed D. impressive

Question 04. She turned ________ his offer because she did not want to work too far away from home.

A. away B. down C. off D. out

Question 05. Let’s go out for a social gathering tonight, ________?

A. do we B. shall we C. shan’t we D. will we

Question 06. They________ all their assignments last night but they didn’t.

A. should finish B. must finish C. should have finished D. must have finished

Question 07. If more labour-saving devices are used in our home, the housework ________ a burden any more.

A. wouldn’t have been B. not be C. wouldn’t be D. won’t be

Question 08. By the end of this month, this language center________ more than two hundred students.

A. will have recruited B. will recruit C. had recruited D. has recruited

Question 09. Laura’s former teacher promised________ her wedding next week.

A. to attend B. attend C. to attending D. attending

Question 10. When volunteering in the Middle East, she unfortunately____ a rare disease.

A. treated B. contracted C. committed D. adopted

Question 11. Her parents insisted that she________ to medical university.

A. applying B. applied C. applies D. apply

Question 12. The speaker showed some______ photos to attract the audience’s attention.

A. far-reaching B. thought-provoking C. narrow-minded D. weather-beaten

Question 13.Only professionals can identify different ________ of natural light.

A. intensities B. extensions C. expansions D. Weights

Question 14. It gets_________ to understand what the professor has explained.

A. difficult more and more B. more difficult than

C. more and more difficult D. the more difficult

Question 15: A computer is a(n) ______ storage device which manages large collections of data.

A. electrical B. electronic C. electric D. electricity

Question 16: After the large income tax hike, many people suddenly found it difficult to ______ both ends meet.

A. take B. make C. do D. have

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. Mai and Nam are talking about the cell phone Nam has just bought.

- Mai: “________________.” - Nam: “Thank you. I’m glad you like it.”

A. Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone before

B. Can I borrow your cell phone, Nam?

C. Do you like your cell phone, Nam?

D. You have just bought a cell phone, don’t you?

Question 18. Mike and Joe are talking about transport in the future.

- Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” - Joe: “___________.”

A. What for? There are quite a few around. B. I’m afraid I can’t.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers. D. I’m glad you like it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 19. It was not until he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.

A. No sooner had he realized how important regular practice was than he lost the game.

B. Only after he lost the game did he realize how important regular practice was.

C. Hardly had he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.

D. Not until did he lose the game he realized how important regular practice was.

Question 20. She has always had a good relationship with the children.

A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.

B. She hardly gets along well with the children.

C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.

D. She has always got on well with the children.

Question 21. “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!” the woman told her son.

A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.

C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on the table.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22. He may be shy now, but he’ll soon come out of his shell when he meets the right girl.

A. hole B. become confident C. shed D. become shy

Question 23. The only cure for alcoholism is complete abstinence from alcohol.

A. sickness B. pretension C. avoidance D. absence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 24. Most of the people recovered quickly. They were injured in the crash.

A. Most of the people injured in the crash recovered quickly.

B. Most of the people recovered quickly after the crash.

C. Most of the people who recovered quickly were injured in the crash.

D. The people who were injured in the crash, most of them recovered quickly.

Question 25. Her living conditions were not good. She studied very well.

A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.

B. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.

C. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.

D. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 26.The lion has long been a symbol of strength, powerful and cruelty.

A. symbol B. strength C. long been D. powerful

Question 27. All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their sex, age, or nationality.

A. candidates B. nationality C. scholarship D. regarding

Question 28. The economy of Maine is based to a great extent in its forests, which cover 80 percent of its surface area.

A. in its B. economy of C. to a D. percent of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 29. It's discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.

A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude

Question 30. One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.

A. unaware B. supportive C. intolerant D. tired

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.

North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street" interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the new people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.

There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

Question 31. Which word is given definition in the text?

A. sampling B. poll C. survey D. interview

Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The principles of conducting surveys.

B. The importance of polls in American political life.

C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys.

D. The history of surveys in North America.

Question 33. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?

A. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results

B. Carefully worded questions

C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings

D. A high number of respondents

Question 34. The word "indispensable” is closest in meaning to __________.

A. necessary B. complicated C. expensive D. simple

Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionnaires is that _________.

A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires

B. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute

C. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions

D. questionnaires are often difficult to read

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake TonIe Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.

One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.

Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.

Question 36.  What is the passage mainly about?

A. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization.

B. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.

C. The essential role water plays in farming.

D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.

Question 37. The word “artificial” in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. numerous B. man-made C. natural D. insincere

Question 38. The word “decrepit” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.

A. beneficial B. incomplete C. deteriorated D. disorganized

Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. farmland B. temples and palaces C. rice paddies D. reservoirs and canals

Question 40. All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT _________.

A. contamination of soil B. erosion of soil

C. reduction of nutrients      D. loss of water supply

Question 41.  The passage preceding this passage most likely discusses_________.

A. religious practices of the people of Angkor

B. the other six wonders of the world

C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire

D. architecture of ancient Asian civilization

Question 42. Why does the author mention the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs?

A. They became non-functional due to overuse.

B. They supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean.

C. They were destroyed by nearby warrior tribes.

D. They helped transport the sandstones for constructing temples.

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire

________.

A. lost their food source due to excess rainfall

B. were intentionally starved by the farmers

C. depended upon rice as their main source of food

D. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits the numbered blanks from 44 to 48.

Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the household. Women were quite (44) _____ to their families. However, the public role of women has changed (45) _____ since the beginning of World War II.
During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a (46) ____, women were in complete control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple (47) _____. They began to take over the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force. Women were forced by economic realities to work in the factories. The women who worked there were (48) _____ low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories.

Question 44. A. fascinated B. worried C. dedicated D. interested
Question 45. A. unfortunately B. approximately C. nearly D. dramatically
Question 46. A. change B. result C. success D. opportunity
Question 47. A. duty B. job C. requirement D. career
Question 48. A. made B. paid C. created D. delivered

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49. A. trained B. performed C. proved D. walked

Question 50. A. handsome B. grandfather C. handkerchief D. handbook

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure

Question 2. A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. discuss B. waving C. airport D. often

Question 4. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. __________ Columbus was one of the first people to cross the Atlantic.

A. A B. The C. An D. Ø

Question 6. If he were better qualified, he ______ get the job.

A. will B. can C. may D. could

Question 7. What a lovely night! The moon __________brightly.

A. shines B. has shined C. was shining D. is shining

Question 8. _____, I have continued to work on my thesis.

A. Even though there are problems B. In spite of there are problems

C. Although all these problems D. Despite all these problems

Question 9. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is __________ pressure now.

A. out of B. upon C. under D. above

Question 10. In my opinion, _____new technology who will finally decide which ideas take off.

A. It is the development of B. that the development

C. It is the user of D. that the user of

Question 11. ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call.

A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled

C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled

Question 12. __________always gives me real pleasure.

A. I arrange flowers B. the flowers are arranged

C. Arranging flowers D. While arranging flowers

Question 13. The mobile phone is an effective means of ______ in the world nowadays.

A. communicated B. communication C. communicate D. communicative

Question 14. That beautiful girl died of an________ morphine.

A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose

Question 15. We ______ full advantage of the fine weather and had a day out.

A. took B. created C. did D. made

Question 16. __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment..

A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation

Question 17. There is __________in my bed room .

A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table

C. a square old wooden table D. an old wooden square table

Question 18. The harder he studies, ________

A. the better results he gets B. his results get better

C. the better do his results get D. the best results he gets

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. pay attention to B. express interest to C. be related to D. be interested in

Question 20. The trouble with Frank is that he never turns up on time for a meeting.

A. gets B. switches C. arrives D. goes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 21. I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.

A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand

Question 22. In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.  A. remake      B.  empty      C. refill    D. repeat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.

- Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here.”

- Peter: “___________________”

A. No, I wouldn’t mind at all. B. Not on my account. C. That’s all right. D. Well, it’s worth a try

Question 24. “Congratulations! You performed so well in the contest”

“ ___________________”.

A. Thanks. But it’s just a matter of luck B. Oh, it was nothing great

C. It’s my pleasure D. Thanks. I’m glad you could make of it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Environmental Concerns

Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (25)_____ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the lonely resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (26)____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (27)_____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it.

The Earth's (28)_____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (29)_____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will go indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.

Question 25. A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite

Question 26. A. neither B. sooner C. rather D. either

Question 27. A. result B. reaction C. development D. product

Question 28. A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine

Question 29. A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34

Mass transportation revised the social and economic fabric of the American city in three fundamental ways. It catalyzed physical expansion, it sorted out people and land uses, and it accelerated the inherent instability of urban life. By opening vast areas of unoccupied land for residential expansion, the omnibuses, horse railways, commuter trains, and electric trolleys pulled settled regions outward two to four times more distant from city centers than they were in the pre- modern era. In 1850, for example, the borders of Boston lay scarcely two miles from the old business district; by the turn of the century the radius extended ten miles. Now those who could afford it could live far removed from the old city center and still commute there for work, shopping, and entertainment. The new accessibility of land around the periphery of almost every major city sparked an explosion of real estate development and fueled what we now know as urban sprawl. Between 1890 and 1920, for example, some 250,000 new residential lots were recorded within the borders of Chicago, most of them located in outlying areas. Over the same period, another 550,000 were plotted outside the city limits but within the metropolitan area. Anxious to take advantage of the possibilities of commuting, real estate developers added 800,000 potential building sites to the Chicago region in just thirty years – lots that could have housed five to six million people.

Of course, many were never occupied; there was always a huge surplus of subdivided, but vacant, land around Chicago and other cities. These excesses underscore a feature of residential expansion related to the growth of mass transportation: urban sprawl was essentially unplanned. It was carried out by thousands of small investors who paid little heed to coordinated land use or to future land users. Those who purchased and prepared land for residential purposes, particularly land near or outside city borders where transit lines and middle-class inhabitants were anticipated, did so to create demand as much as to respond to it. Chicago is a prime example of this process. Real estate subdivision there proceeded much faster than population growth.

( TOEFL reading)

Question 30. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?

A. Types of mass transportation. B. Instability of urban life.

C. How supply and demand determine land use. D. The effects of mass transportation on urban expansion.

Question 31. The author mentions all of the following as effects of mass transportation on cities EXCEPT _____

A. growth in city area B. separation of commercial and residential districts.

C. Changes in life in the inner city. D. Increasing standards of living.

Question 32. The word "vast" in line 3 is closest in meaning to_____

A. large B. basic C. new D. urban

Question 33. The author mentions Chicago in the second paragraph as an example of a city_____.

A. that is large

B. that is used as a model for land development

C. where land development exceeded population growth

D. with an excellent mass transportation system.

Question 34. The word "sparked" in line 10 is closest in meaning to_____

A. brought about B. surrounded C. sent out D. followed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42

What we today call American folk art was, indeed, art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday “folks” who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds, and especially for portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics-whether ancient Romans, seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century Americans-have always shown a marked taste for portraiture. Starting in the late eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing numbers of such people, and of the artists who could meet their demands. The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England- especially Connecticut and Massachusetts-for this was a wealthy and populous region and the center of a strong craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the Declaration of Independence in 1776, the population was pushing westward, and portrait painters could be found at work in western New York, Ohio,

Kentucky, Illinois, and Missouri. Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States' population had increased roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original thirteen. During these years the demand for portraits grew and grew eventually to be satisfied by the camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in the age of photography, and within a generation the new invention put an end to the popularity of painted portraits. Once again an original portrait became a luxury, commissioned by the wealthy and executed by the professional.

But in the heyday of portrait painting-from the late eighteenth century until the

1850's-anyone with a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a portraitist was called. Local craftspeople-sign, coach, and house painters-began to paint portraits as a profitable sideline; sometimes a talented man or woman who began by sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged with requests for portraits; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and brushes and to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting.

Question 35. In lines 4 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an example of a group that

  1. consisted mainly of self-taught artists
  2. appreciated portraits
  3. influenced American folk art
  4. had little time for the arts

Question 36. According to the passage, where were many of the first American folk art portraits painted?

  1. In western New York
  2. In Illinois and Missouri
  3. In Connecticut and Massachusetts
  4. In Ohio

Question 37. How much did the population of the United States increase in the first fifty

years following independence?

  1. It became three times larger.
  2. It became five times larger.
  3. It became eleven times larger.
  4. It became thirteen times larger.

Question 38. The phrase “ushering in” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

A. beginning B. demanding C. publishing D. increasing

Question 39. The relationship between the daguerreotype (line 15) and the painted portrait (line 14) is similar to the relationship between the automobile and the _______

A. highway B. driver C. engine D. horse-drawn carriage

Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in the

demand for painted portrait?

  1. The lack of a strong craft tradition
  2. The westward migration of many painters
  3. The growing preference for landscape paintings
  4. The invention of the camera

Question 41. The author implies that most limners (line 20)

  1. received instruction from traveling teachers
  2. were women
  3. were from wealthy families
  4. had no formal art training

Question 42. The phrase “worth their while” in line 23 is closest in meaning to______

A. essential B. educational C. profitable D. pleasurable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43.  Although there are more than 2,000 different varieties of candy, many of them

A B

made from a basic boiled mixture of sugar, water, and corn syrup.

C D Question 44.  One day a fame singer was invited by a rich lady to her house.

A B C D

Question 45. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the A B

urban areas where many jobs are found.

C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to
each of the following questions.

Question 46. “I’ll speak calmly. I really will!”, he said.

A. He offered to speak calmly. B. He reminded me to speak calmly.

C. He promised to speak calmly. D. He refused to speak calmly.

Question 47. The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen

A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.

B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.

C. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.

D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.

Question 48. We had no sooner got to know our neighbors than they moved away.

A. Soon after we got to know our new neighbors, we stopped having contact with them.

B. If our new neighbors had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.

C. Once we had got used to our new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.

D. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.

A. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.

B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.

C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.

D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.

Question 50. Quang won a scholarship. We are excited about that fact.

A. We’re excited about Quang’s having won a scholarship.

B. Quang’s excited about a scholarship’s having won us.

C. The fact being excited us had won Quang a scholarship.

D. We won Quang’s excitement about the fact of a scholarship.

___The end___

KEY

1.C

2.B

3.A

4.A

5.D

6.D

7.D

8.D

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.C

13.B

14.D

15.A

16.B

17.A

18.A

19.A

20.C

21.A

22.B

23.C

24.A

25.B

26.D

27.A

28.C

29.D

30.D

41.D

42.C

43.C

44.B

45.B

46.C

47.C

48.D

49.C

50.D