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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm 12 trang, 04 phần)

Điểm của bài thi: Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

• Bằng số: 1. ______________________________

______________________________

• Bằng chữ: 2. ______________________________ ______________________________

_SỐ PHÁCH:

A. LISTENING (4 POINTS)

Part I: Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

You will hear the recording twice.

Health Benefits of Dance Recent findings:

• All forms of dance produce various hormones associated with feelings of happiness. - Dancing with others has a more positive impact than dancing alone. - An experiment on university students suggested that dance increases (1)_____________.
• For those with mental illnesses, dance could be used as a form of (2)_____________.

Benefits of dance for older people:

• accessible for people with low levels of (3)_____________
• reduces the risk of heart disease
• better (4)_____________ reduces the risk of accidents
• improves (5)_____________ function by making it work faster
• improves participants' general well-being
• gives people more (6)_____________ to take exercise
• can lessen the feeling of (7)_____________, very common in older people Benefits of Zumba:
• A study at The University of Wisconsin showed that doing Zumba for 40 minutes uses up as many (8)_____________ as other quite intense forms of exercise.
• The American Journal of Health Behaviour study showed that:

+ women suffering from (9)_____________ benefited from doing Zumba + Zumba became a (10)_____________ for the participants.

Part II: You will hear different extracts. For questions 1-4, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. There are two questions for each extract.

You will hear the recording twice.

Extract One

You hear part of an interview with a woman who works in retail management.

1. How does the woman feel now about her first job in retailing?

1. pleased by the way she handled the staff
2. confident that it gave her a good start C. relaxed about the mistakes she made 2. What is the woman advised to do next?
3. reflect on her skills
4. volunteer for extra work
5. discuss her situation with her boss

Extract Two

You overhear a woman telling a friend a story about a swan.

1. What problem did the woman have with the swan? A. She misunderstood its intentions.
   1. She underestimated the speed of its approach.
   2. She failed to realise the consequences of disturbing it.
2. What is the man's reaction to the story?
   1. He feels he would have handled the situation better.
   2. He is unconvinced by the woman's version of events.
   3. He fails to see how serious the problem was.

Part III: You will hear part of an interview with the astronaut Charles Duke, who is talking about his trip to the moon. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. You will hear the recording twice.

1. How did Charles feel about space travel as a boy? A. He thought it was unlikely to happen.
   1. He regarded it as more than science fiction.
   2. He was fascinated by the idea of it.
   3. He showed no particular interest in it.
2. What did Charles consider to be the hardest part of the training?
   1. feeling trapped in the heavy spacesuit
   2. endlessly practising the lunar surface landing
   3. constantly being afraid of making a mistaking
   4. being unable to move his arms and hands
3. What was Charles's reaction when he first found out he was going to the moon? A. He realised he had to be cautious.
   1. He felt proud to be given the opportunity.
   2. He tried to control his excitement.
   3. He reflected on his chances of survival.
4. How did the crew feel when they had landed on the moon? A. They felt as if they were coming home.
   1. They realised they had achieved something special.
   2. They were afraid of what they might find on the surface.
   3. They were worried about how they would take off again.
5. What feature of the moon made the greatest impact on Charles?
   1. the brightness of the sun
   2. the vastness of the sky
   3. the loneliness of the place
   4. the absence of any stars
6. What does Charles feel was the most memorable part of his mission?
   1. nearly falling into a crater
   2. walking on the moon’s surface
   3. seeing things never seen before
   4. holding a piece of the moon

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (4 POINTS)

Part I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. When the two fighter jets collided into each other during the performance, ______ broke out among the spectators.
   1. turbulence B. pandemonium C. turmoil D. clamour
2. He had been in many a tight ______ during his life, and guarding a warehouse did not trouble him unduly.
   1. scrap B. patch C. spot D. rein
3. Noisy parties are really not my _______.
   1. predilection B. liking C. scene D. preference
4. It's raining again! That's ______ at the weekend!
   1. a mixed blessing B. a rude awakening

C. par for the course D. part and parcel

1. The color of someone's skin should be ______ no account.
   1. from B. on C. by D. of
2. They weren't speaking to each other, but I think it's ______ now.
   1. beaten down B. held off C. blown over D. rolled in
3. Having been exposed to the sun, his already dark complexion became ______.
   1. swarthy B. sullen C. sweltering D. tarnished
4. I know it's easy to be smitten with a romantic partner, but I don't think it's healthy for one to ______ the other on a pedestal.
   1. fix B. put C. lay D. stick
5. The book describes her ______ as a war correspondent.
   1. tragedies B. exploits C. stunts D. antics
6. He felt his space had been ______ when his father came to stay.
   1. invaded B. intruded C. usurped D. conquered

Your answers:

Part II: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. The team built up an ____________ 5–1 lead. (PREGNANT)
2. Her evidence was dismissed as ____________. (HEAR)
3. I don't want to be dependent on ____________. (HAND)
4. Both bedrooms have tiled ____________. (SUIT)
5. He was taken to court for ____________ of the fine. (PAY)
6. Plants draw minerals and other ____________ from the soil. (NUTRITION)
7. They seemed unaware of the drama being ____________ a few feet away from them. (ACT)
8. In the exhibition, abstract paintings are ____________ with shocking photographs.

(POSE)

1. People are increasingly becoming ____________ to violence on television. (SENSE) 10. The bedroom window on the second floor is ____________ placed. (SYMMETRY) Your answers:

Part III: The passage below contains five errors. Underline the mistakes and write their corrections in the space provided.

C. READING (5 POINTS)

Part I: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. Knowing when to go

Fans are generally taken (1)______ when a famous actor or actress suddenly (2)______ the profession at the height of his or her career. Greta Garbo, who made her last film when she was not yet 40, was a notable (3)______ in point.

Sportsmen and women face this decision earliest. Though they generally have evidence that their powers are in (4)______, very few have the self-awareness to get out while the going is still (5)______.

Politicians are perhaps the last to realise that the game is up. As long as they can (6)______ on to power, they refuse to accept the advice of party members, no doubt suspecting it is prompted by their colleagues' own ambitions!

1. A. surprised B. astonished C. unawares D. unexpected
2. A. quits B. withdraws C. resigns D. vacates
3. A. case B. type C. example D. illustration
4. A. decrease B. decline C. descent D. decay
5. A. fine B. well C. good D. fair 6. A. keep B. stick C. fasten D. hang

Your answers:

Part II: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

What is Creativity?

The easiest way to determine what constitutes creativity is to consider what is missing from some of the current, popular definitions. In management literature, and (1)____________ popular discourse, creativity has two principal aspects. First, creativity is all about novelty or difference – a deviation from conventional tools and perspectives. Secondly, it requires that creative individuals be (2)____________ the freedom to express their individual talent or vision. These two themes, individualism and innovation, are rooted in a Western philosophical tradition which has reinforced a one-sided and destructive stereotype of creativity and creative people. (3)____________ this conflation of creativity with individualism and innovation does is to disconnect creative thinking from the contexts and systems that give their innovations and talents meaning and value. It also perpetuates the notion that creative industries can be (4)____________ aside from 'ordinary' industries as a unique sphere of activity, as if creativity were the privilege of a few officially designated businesses and missing from everywhere (5)____________. Psychological definitions of creativity generally contain two distinct components. In the first place, creativity requires that we make or think something (6)____________, or a new combination of existing elements. This is the element of novelty or innovation. However, mere novelty is not enough. To be creative, an idea must also be useful or valuable. This second part of the (7)____________ is reflected in the emphasis on 'problem-solving' in psychological creativity tests and in the argument that creative ideas must demonstrate 'fitness or purpose'. Your answers:

Part III: Read this article about house-hunting. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

LOVE AT FIRST SIGHT

It is a fact of life that we choose our homes in about three minutes flat, the time it takes to boil an egg. Often the decision is made in the hallway before any other part of the house has even been seen. The choice on which our happiness − or otherwise − will depend is based on nothing more than a sense of atmosphere. A survey shows that as many as 60 per cent of us behave in this way. Practical matters such as the number of bedrooms, the quality of the kitchen, the proximity to shops, transport and schools pale beside this powerful surge of emotion.

Tara Chapman knows well how overwhelming the 'feel good factor' can be. When she first walked into her two-bedroom flat in London she started to cry. 'It was a dark November afternoon. I walked into the living room and burst into tears. It made me feel suddenly at home,' she says. Her work for a television advertising production company in Spain now takes her away for long periods, so she has decided to sell. Her agents are asking nearly £300,000 for the flat and are no doubt hoping that it tugs at someone else's heartstrings. 'I will probably weep when I leave it,' Tara says.

With couples, the 'must have' moment is often accompanied by emotional gestures, as if they are posing for wedding photographs all over again. 'There is a lot of hand holding, when her head goes on his shoulder and you know they want the house. It usually happens in the first room they go into,' says estate agent Melissa Bruce-Jones. 'People are often drawn by the decoration and the possessions of the existing owners. So many houses in London are identical, but if buyers identify with a lifestyle, they want the house.'

The rush of emotion tells an estate agent that a purchase is imminent, but if it comes too soon after the house has been put on the market, it can also cause problems. William Kirkland has just completed the exchange on a house that went on the market ten days ago.

'The buyer went to see it at nine in the morning on the first day,' he says. 'By 10.30 she had made an offer. She just knew the house was right.'

But no other buyer had yet had a chance to see it, and many wanted to. What should he do? 'If she cooled later, then we would lose all the other applicants,' he says. 'They would wonder why the sale had fallen through, and distrust me because I hadn't let them see the house first time round.' And of course other buyers might offer more money, too! The solution was to allow the passionate first buyer to have the house provided she settled within ten days. She just made it.

Where, then, does this good feeling come from? The 18th-century landscape designer Lancelot 'Capability' Brown knew how to create drama for a big country house; he would arrange it so that the house was approached by a meandering drive that allowed only snatched glimpses of the house before finally revealing the full glory of the façade at the end. This was the kind of experience Charles Illingworth had when he first saw his house in Somerset. 'We were not even looking for a house,' he says. 'We crested the top of the drive and looked down at this amazing view, with the house sitting down below.'

'We didn't need to go into the house. We both knew it was the sort of place we had always wanted to live and bring up children in. We didn't even have children at the time. And the thing was that the pretty side of the house was actually the other side. It was a complete wreck − but it had magic.'

It is not quantifiable criteria that sell houses, but abstract qualities such as charm and potential. Agents agree that the light-socket counters tend not to buy. Nor do those who make multiple visits, who often suffer for their dithering. 'I am told it is like buying a new dress,' says Colin Swait, another agent. 'You go to every shop before you go back to the first one, and sometimes it has been sold.'

What elicits the emotional response that draws the offers is a single stunning room or view. 'Eighteenth-century houses are popular,' says Swait. 'They are the houses of our childhood stories, the houses that appear in literature and costume drama, the houses of our dreams. Any biographer will tell you how important houses are to people, how much we are moved by a sense of place.'

The business of house-hunting can be something of a nightmare, a bad dream of wrong room sizes and wrong addresses from which we eventually awake with a sense of coming home. Just as long as we know it as such when we get there.

1. Which of these is decisive for the majority of people buying a house?
   1. their first impression
   2. the size of the house
   3. its conditions
   4. the area where it is situated
2. What is Tara Chapman saying about her feelings with regard to her flat? A. They will be the same on leaving as on first sight.
   1. She will behave the same way for different reasons.
   2. She is sure someone will buy it for the same reasons as she did.
   3. She is sad that she will not get a fair price for it.
3. What does Melissa suggest attracts couples to houses?
   1. Something that reminds them of their wedding.
   2. The fact that a house is different from others they have seen.
   3. The contents of the house that the owners are also offering.
   4. The feeling that they would like to live like the present owners.
4. Why did Mr Kirkland feel that he had a problem?
   1. He was afraid the woman would regret making up her mind so quickly.
   2. He thought that her quick decision would put other buyers off.
   3. He thought that other buyers would be angry that he hadn't advertised that the house was for sale.
   4. He suspected that he could get a better price for the house.
5. What attracted Mr Illingworth and his wife to the house they bought?
   1. its situation
   2. its general condition
   3. its being ideal for their children
   4. the fact that they saw its most attractive features first
6. Which buyers are most likely to be disappointed? A. Those who are unwilling to bargain.
   1. Those who worry too much about details.
   2. Those who take a long time to make up their minds.
   3. Those who rely on first impressions.
7. What sort of warning for buyers is contained in the last sentence? A. Don't let house-hunting affect your health!
   1. Don't buy anything in an unpleasant area!
   2. Don't insist on trying to recreate your childhood home!
   3. Make sure that what you buy really suits you! Your answers:

Part IV: This passage has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the Lists of headings below. Write appropriate numbers (ixiv) in the boxes given.

One of the headings has been done for you as an example. Note that you may use any heading more than once.

NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. Testing, Testing, Testing 1 2 3 4 ...

The introduction of SATs

1. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom appears to be: if it moves, test it and if it doesn't, well test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an obsession. In addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs, and HNDs, not to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the threat of 'new tests', scholastic aptitude test (SATs).
2. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds a better chance of entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class bias that exists in British university. But, in fact, they are no more than an additional barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ tests, are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free if the bias that their supporters pretend.
3. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which again will advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Professional Association of Teachers, it was declared that school exams and tests are biased towards middle-class children. Further, the content of the tests in question is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), set by a group of item writers.
4. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which correlate with the school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly unsatisfactory. There is also evidence that in MCQ tests women are at a disadvantage because of the way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are only as good as the people who write them; so, unless the writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers!

Other developments in testing

1. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system has not been so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are changing. Previously, students took exams at the end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the year. Now, language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTS and the Pitman ESOL exams can be taken much more frequently. The IELTS examination, for example, is run at test centres throughout the world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is held more frequently. At present, in London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times per week.
2. Flexible assessment like the IELTS has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that students may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take an assessment test for a range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant assessment and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the convenience.
3. The workplace has been at the forefront of developing in-house schemes to establish whether people are suitable for particular jobs and/ or careers. Psychological profiles and hand-writing analysis as well as aptitude tests are now part of the armory of the corporate personnel officer; an interview and a curriculum vitae no longer suffice. But, as in the education field, there are dangers here. Testing appears to confirm the notion that certain people are predestined to enter particular careers. All of us have heard someone say: he/ she is a born actor, a born teacher, and so on. The recent work on the human genome and the research in genetics adds further credence to this notion.
4. How long before psychological profiling is introduced into schools to determine a child's future? With the aid of psychometric tests, children may soon be helped to make more informed choices about the subjects they choose to study at secondary school, and then university. But people will still be pointed in the wrong direction. In many cases, the result will conflict with the person's own desires, mainly because he/she filled in the test wrongly, or the test did not pick up an essential piece of information. Unless the assessors are highly trained experts, many more people will find themselves mid-life in jobs that they did not really want to do.
5. Whilst testing achievement is essential and indeed inevitable, it needs to be treated with caution. Tests are, after all, only tools − not an end in themselves.

Lists of headings

i. Assessment in the future ii. The theory behind MCQs iii. Not enough testing iv. Problems with SATs

v. Misuse of testing in schools vi. The need for computer assessment vii. The future of psychometric testing in schools viii. Testing with caution ix. Testing in the workplace x. Globalisation in testing xi. The benefits of SATs xii. The shortcoming of MCQs xiii. Too much testing

xiv. Flexibility in language testing Example: Paragraph A: xiii Your answers:

D. WRITING (5 POINTS)

Part I: For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given.

You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. 1. My sociology lecturer always knows what to say in every situation. (loss)

- My sociology lecturer ______________________________ words, whatever the situation.

1. It's a foregone conclusion that Julia will do her best to be offered the job. (goes) - It ______________________________ every effort to be offered the job.
2. I haven't had the time to reply to her letter yet. (round) - I haven't ______________________________ her letter yet.
3. Although the couple are getting old, they do not need anyone to care for them. (fend) - The elderly couple ______________________________ their age.
4. Lending Tom so much money was a rather foolish thing to do. (better) - You should ______________________________ Tom so much money.
5. We never questions her ability to run the department. (moment)

- Not ______________________________ her ability to run the department.

7. He will only be included in the team if he passes a fitness test. (subject) - His inclusion in the team ______________________________ a fitness test. 8. It was far from obvious why they began to argue fiercely. (apparent)

- There was ______________________________ begin arguing fiercely.

9. John's colleagues ignored him after he reported one of them for leaving work early.

(shoulder)

- John ______________________________ his colleagues for reporting one of them for leaving work early.

10. The twins look very much alike to me. (difference) - I ______________________________ the twins.

Part II: Write an essay of about 300 words on the following topic.

Some people think that a sense of competition in children should be encouraged. Others believe that children who are taught to co-operate rather than compete become more useful adults.

Discuss both views and give your own opinion.

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_____________________________________________________________________ _________________THE END_________________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LẠNG SƠN LỚP 12 NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH-CHUYÊN

(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 03 trang)

LISTENING (4 POINTS)

Part I: (2 points) (0.2 points/ one correct answer)

1. creativity 2. therapy 3. fitness 4. balance 5. brain

6. motivation 7. isolation 8. calories 9. obesity 10. habit

Part II: (0.8 points) (0.2 points/ one correct answer)

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C

Part III: (1.2 points) (0.2 points/ one correct answer)

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D

LEXICO-GRAMMAR (4 POINTS)

Part I: (1 point) (0.1 point/ 1 correct answer)

Part III: 1 point (0.2 points/ 1 correct answer: 0.1 point for each error identification and 0.1 point for each correction)

WRITING (5 POINTS)

Part I: 2 points (0.2 points/ 1 correct answer)

1. is never at a loss for
2. goes without saying that Julia will make
3. got round to replying to/ answering
4. can fend for themselves in spite of/ despite
5. have known better than to lend
6. one/ a moment did we question
7. is subject to his passing
8. no apparent reason for them to
9. was given the cold shoulder by
10. cannot tell the difference between

Part II: 3 points

The mark given to this part is based on the following criteria:

1. Completion: 0.3
   1. The writing is complete.
   2. The writing is neither too long nor too short.
2. Content: 0.9 points
   1. Providing all main ideas and details as required
   2. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
3. Organization and Presentation: 0.6 points
   1. The writing is presented in the right form of an essay.
   2. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
   3. The essay is well-structured.
4. Language: 0.9 points
   1. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level

of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

• 1. Good use and control of grammatical structures. 5. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting: 0.3 points
  2. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
  3. Legible handwriting

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