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aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

THE FUTURE

I sometimes wonder what life will be like in the future.

Life has (1) ……………….....................….. so much in just the past few years.

I'm sure that there are still big changes that are coming.

Do you think we'll still drive (2) ……………….....................…..? Maybe we'll get into computerized (3) ……………….....................….. that we won't have to drive.

We'll just push a few buttons, and the vehicles will take us to wherever we have to go.

Maybe there won't be roads. We might just fly through (4) ……………….....................….. to get where we want to go. Instead of (5) ……………….....................….., we'll just use our computers.

We'll be able to see each other when we talk.

That type of thing is (6) ……………….....................….. happening.

Maybe we won't have to cook our meals.

We might be able to push buttons to order (7) ……………….....................….. we want.

A nice roast beef dinner, or an ice cream sundae, might just pop out of a machine.

It would be nice to have a (8) ……………….....................….. to clean the house for you.

In the past few years, computers have been extremely (9) ……………….....................….. .

People used to write to each other through the mail.

Now, people (10) ……………….....................….. so much more frequently through E-mail.

Most of my friends own computers.

If we had all of these things to do the work for us, what would we do?

We would still need people to (11) ……………….....................….. the computers. We could spend more time being (12) ……………….....................….., rather than doing everyday chores.

The future holds many surprises.

I'm sure that (13) ……………….....................….. will become even more and more amazing.

When my parents were young, they had never even seen a color television.

Nobody (14) ……………….....................….. a computer.

It doesn't take long for things to change a lot.

Who knows what (15) ……………….....................….. things are in store for us?

-> Your answers:

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

-> Your answers:

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from

the others (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt):

-> Your answers:

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

26. By 2050, medical technology ...................... many current incurable diseases.

27. Mrs. Lan is a friendly woman. She gets ...................... with all her neighbours.

28. We have to leave now because we are due ...................... in Ha Long Bay by seven.

29. I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ...................... a programme on TV.

30. ...................... Jason became famous, he has ignored his old friends. He shouldn’t do that.

31. By the time our manager comes back from Japan, the work .......................

32. ...................... English fluently, we should practise speaking it whenever possible.

33. In recent years, the government has imposed pollution controls on automobile manufaturers. Both domestic and imported automobiles must.................. anti-pollution devices.

34. Hardly...................... the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.

35. It was the first time I ...................... in such an important match.

36. Air consists of a combination of nitrogen and oxygen ...................... in place by gravity.

37. Unemployment is on the rise again, which means that good jobs are .......................

38. - Thuy: “Do you have the book...................... the teacher?” - Hanh: “Yes, I do”.

39. Neither of those students will be treated preferentially, ......................?

40. - Tom: “I can’t open the top of this apple juice.” - Mary: “ ...................... it.”

-> Your answers:

II. Give the correct form of the words given in the box to complete the sentences:

(10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Most people would be in (00) …….agreement…… with the idea, often put forward by doctors, that we should avoid taking medicines unnecessarily. Even people with only (41)........................................... medical knowledge say that it is not (42) ........................................... to take aspirin, for example, whenever you have a (43) ........................................... or some other minor ailments. It is certainly true that people have tended to become very (44) ........................................... on pills when in any kind of discomfort, rather than simply waiting for the symptoms to pass. Many people would do well to take a different attitude to preventing illness. The best way to keep well is to avoid (45) ........................................... foods and habits. It is also (46) ........................................... to take plenty of exercise, and we should give (47) ........................................... to people of all ages to do this, particularly the young ones. If we can educate people at an early age to keep fit and to look after themselves (48) ........................................... then the (49) ........................................... of their having problems in later life will be considerably reduced. However, no matter how well we look after ourselves and how much exercise we do, illness, (50) ..........................................., is not always preventable.

-> Your answers:

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

1. You had better have central heating installed before winter sets................................................ .
2. A wedding reception for 200 people will certainly set you ................................................ thousands.
3. The Pikes set................................................ for their destination at 8 o’clock this morning.
4. Thomas set................................................ a new world record for the 100 metres race.
5. My new friend’s jokes set ................................................ the whole class laughing.
6. A fire in the factory set production................................................ by several weeks.
7. Thuy Linh set................................................ to become a dancer but an injury prevented her from fulfilling her ambition.
8. You should set................................................ some money every week if you want to buy a new house.
9. How would they set ................................................ teaching a dog to perform tricks?
10. He treated to set the dogs................................................ us if we didn’t get off his properly.

-> Your answers:

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Today, in China, (61) ................................................ large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government has required that every citizen (62) ................................................ the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees (63) ................................................ year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest (64) ................................................ The government claims that at (65) ................................................ 1000 million trees have been planted in China every year (66) ................................................ 1982.

In western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that have been produced cause forest landowners and forest industries to become (67) ................................................ accoutable for their forest management and timber harvesting practices.

The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue program is a charity that helps to (68)................................................ deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (69) ................................................ preserve rainforest land before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (70) ................................................ the land from deferestation.

-> Your answers:

II. Read the passage and fill each blank with only ONE suitable word: (10 × 0,2 =2,0 pts)

SHOPPING FOR GIRLS

Little girls all over London have a twelve-year-old boy to thank for marking some of their dreams (71) ............................................. true. Vivienne Pringle was out shopping with her children (72)............................................. they passed an empty shop. As a game, she asked them what sort of thing they thought should be sold in it. Her son Benedict Pringle said that (73)............................................. wasn’t a shop that sold all the things that his four-year-old sister liked and that’s what he (74)............................................. sell there. Thinking about his suggestion, Vivienne realised it was a great idea. Although many different shops sold some things aimed (75)............................................. little girls, no-one had thought of putting them all together in one place.

Vivienne, who already ran a successful mail order company, opened her first shop last March. It is called Girlheaven. (76)............................................. you might expect, it sells traditional toys and educational games, but the best-selling lines are partly clothes and all the accessories that go (77)............................................. them. In short, as (78)............................................. as it’s pink and glittery, it sells at Girlheaven. But the shop is also a fun place to visit. On Saturdays, there are dance shows led (79)............................................ members of the sales staff and the young shoppers are invited to join in. It’s even possible (80)............................................. regular customers to hold their birthday parties there.

-> Your answers:

III. Read and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions: (50.2=1.0 pt)

People often call New York “the Big Apple”. Maybe it is not exactly like an apple, it’s certainly very big. There are too many people, that’s the problem. The streets are always full of car and trucks, you can never find a place to park. You can take a taxi if you have enough money. New York cabs are yellow. They look all the same. But the drivers are very different. Some were born and raised in New York, but many are newcomers to the United States. A few drive slowly, but most go very very fast. Cab driving is difficult job. It can be dangerous too. Thieves often try to steal the drivers’ money. Drivers sometimes get hurt.

If you don’t want to take a taxi, you can go by bus or you can take the subway. The subway is quick and it’s cheap, but parts of it are old and dirty. Lights don’t always work and there are often fire on the track. On some subway lines, there are new, clean, silver trains. But you can’t see the color of the old trains easily. There is too much dirt and too much graffiti, inside and out side.

81. What is the problem in New York?

82. What does a cab mean?

83. It is …………………………………………to go by subway.

84. The world “track” can best be replaced by …………………………………………

85. Subways in New York …………………………………………

-> Your answers:

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (50.2=1.0 pt)

86. They tried to do the exercise, but without success. (matter)

-> No …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………… do the exercise.

87. My father decided to have an early night because he was exhausted. (go)

-> My father …………………………………………………………..………….…………………….. because he was exhausted.

88. If we work late tonight, you will be tired tomorrow. (later)

-> The………………………………………………………………………………………....……………we will be tomorrow.

89. Couldn’t the newspaper have printed a better headline? (could)

-> Was that………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……...……………….. print?

90. The loss of the account was not our fault. (blame)

-> We…………………………………………………………………………...........………………………….…………………….. the account.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Dear Linda Young,

91. On behalf/ our class,/ I would like/ express/ great gratitude/ you/ help/ us organize/ English Speaking Club.//

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

92. Our English Speaking Club/ wouldn’t / be hold/ successful/ but for/ great help.//

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

93. Club stimulated/ spirit/English learning among us/ so we/ have/lot/fun/ learn/ each other//

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

94. I hope/ get more assistance/ you/ future/ hold/ activities/ the Club/ regular//.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

95. I/ forward/ hear/ you/ soon//

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

Your sincerely,

Khanh Hoa

III. In about 200 words, write a paragraph about the importance of examinations:

(2.5 points) (Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………............…….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt):

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

II. Give the correct form of the words given in the box to complete the sentences:

(10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

II. Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable

word. (10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

III. Read and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions: (50.2=1.0 pt)

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (50.2=1.0 pt)

1. matter how hard they tried, they couldn’t
2. decided to go to bed early
3. later we work tonight, the more tired
4. the best headline the newspaper could
5. are not to blame for the loss of

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Dear Linda Young,

91. On behalf of our class, I would like to express our great gratitude to you for helping us

organize our English Speaking Club.

92. Our English Speaking Club wouldn’t have been held successfully but for your great

help.

93. This Club stimulated the spirit of English learning among us, so we had a lot of fun

and learned from each other.

94. I hope get more assistance from you in the future to hold the activities of the Club

regularly.

95. I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Your sincerely,

Mai

III. In about 200 words, write a paragraph about the importance of examinations:

(2.5 points) (Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

Notes for marking:

Total mark = 20 points

80 sentences 0.2 = 16 points

15 sentences 0.1 = 1.5points (from sentence 26 -> sentence 40)

The essay = 2.5 points